2014 Latest CompTIA CD0-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
During the presentation of a prototype, a customer realizes that it has left out a critical security component. The customer has already approved the software requirements. What is the appropriate next step for the consultant?

A.    Ask the customer for a change request form.
B.    Agree to make the changes needed at no cost.
C.    Ask the development team to make the changes.
D.    Inform the customer that no changes can be made.

Answer: A

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2014 Latest CompTIA CV0-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
After an administrator successfully migrated the last physical application server to a virtual environment, the help desk reported slow performance. Which of the following should the administrator have done FIRST before migrating this server?

A.    Apply operating system patches to the application server after the migration.
B.    Contact the vendor to see if the application is supported in a virtual environment.
C.    Take a backup of the application server after the migration.
D.    Migrate the application server in a test environment and have users test it.

Answer: B

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2014 Latest CompTIA TK0-201 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
After a training class was completed, the instructor conducted several passive on the job observations of each learner who attended the class. Which of the following is the primary benefit of the observations?

A.    It measures the application of the skills taught.
B.    It validates the quality of the course material.
C.    It requires the learners to use what they learned.
D.    It helps to reinforce the learning concepts.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An instructor asks an open-ended question to the class. Which of the following BEST describes the skill the instructor is demonstrating?

A.    Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training.
B.    Elicit learner feedback on the adequacy of instructor responses.
C.    Provide feedback that is specific to learners needs.
D.    Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following would be on an evaluation when seeking feedback concerning courseware material used during a class?

A.    Design of the courseware materials
B.    Accuracy of the courseware
C.    Cost of the courseware
D.    Instructor’s use of the courseware

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes a form of feedback with the GREATEST positive impact?

A.    Suggestions that focus on procedures versus the concepts
B.    Measurable results from summative assessments
C.    Specific comments on errors with suggestions on how to improve
D.    Comparing learner performance with other learners

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An instructor is conducting a review of written instructions and is aware that the preferred learning style of one of the learners is kinesthetic. Which of the following is the BEST choice for the instructor?

A.    Adjust the delivery of the review to include more graphs and charts as part of the exercise.
B.    Administer an exam to verify learner’s knowledge of the material.
C.    Deliver the curriculum as defined in the documentation so that the rest of the class does not fall behind.
D.    Adjust the delivery of the review to include a demonstration as part of the exercise.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
During a computer software training class the projector fails. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?

A.    Attempt to quickly fix the projector.
B.    Move the class to another room.
C.    Take a class break and find another projector.
D.    Cancel the class and reschedule for a later date.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A company is preparing to roll-out a training course on advanced accounting skills. The company has asked a contract instructor to facilitate the course. The instructor has no background in accounting.
Which of the following should the instructor do?

A.    Ask to team teach the course with an expert
B.    Accept the offer contingent upon six weeks of preparation time
C.    Decline the offer based on lack of knowledge of accounting principles
D.    Accept the offer and learn the content by observing accounting experts

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An instructor is conducting a virtual classroom with an international audience and finds that any single method used for delivery of the material leaves about a third of the learners uninvolved.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.    Send out a public message to the class asking which method of delivery is working best for the class
B.    Send out a private message to each learner asking which method of delivery is working best for them
C.    Query for commonalities amongst the learners,
D.    Continue to use multiple means of delivery

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An instructor is beginning a course and wants to measure the level of expertise of the learners. Which of the following is the BEST method for measuring the level of understanding over the course material?

A.    Ask the learners about their level of understanding over the course material.
B.    Assume that the class has a medium level of understanding over the course material.
C.    Deliver a pre-test covering the course objectives.
D.    Ask another instructor who has taught the learners before.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An instructor is discussing key material for a course when a learner asks a question that will lead to material that the class is not yet prepared for. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the instructor?

A.    Inform the learner that the question can be asked during a break
B.    Answer the question as not doing so may cause the learner to be confused.
C.    Defer the question and assure the learner that it will be covered later in the course.
D.    Inform the learner that the question falls outside of scope and will not be answered.

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An instructor receives poor evaluations for a particular class. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST to improve the performance?

A.    Read the comments to gain understanding of the low scores to find specific areas to work on.
B.    Re-develop the course from scratch.
C.    Practice the course in front of other instructors to receive direct feedback on how to improve.
D.    Contact each learner and ask for clarity on their responses.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An instructor is presenting to a class and notices that a particular learner is not paying attention; however, when the instructor gives a pop quiz, this learner earns the best grade. Which of the following BEST describes the situation?

A.    The quiz did not cover the class concepts effectively
B.    The learner has mastery of the information tested.
C.    The quiz motivated the learner.
D.    The answers to the pop quiz were distributed prior to class

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
At the end of a class, the instructor provides an online evaluation of the course to the learners. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to put on the evaluation? (Select TWO).

A.    Instructor’s presentation abilities
B.    Accessibility of the facility
C.    Technical accuracy of the course material
D.    Amount of time the learner studied for the course
E.    Job title of the learner

Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
An instructor delivering a class with thirty learners defines acceptable and non-acceptable behavior at the beginning of the class on the first day. The instructor also requests learners to be on time. The second day of class a few learners show up late to class. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to take to resolve this issue?

A.    Start the class and as each late learner comes in, thank them for joining the class.
B.    Wait to start the class until all the learners have arrived and are react to start.
C.    Once all the learners have arrived, remind the learners of all the class policies.
D.    Begin class on time and privately talk with the learners who were late.

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
An instructor has placed the learners into groups to discuss several topics. When the instructor walked around to monitor the group progress, the learners were off-task. Which of the following contributes MOST frequently to this situation?

A.    The learners were disinterested in group discussions about the topics.
B.    The learners were neither familiar with nor understood the assigned topics.
C.    The learners were not comfortable with the members of the group.
D.    The learners were ready for a break and the instructor failed to recognize this.

Answer: B
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2014 Latest CompTIA PK0-003 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following are components of a project charter? (Select THREE).

A.    Communication requirements
B.    Risk assessment
C.    Project objectives
D.    Problem statement
E.    Stakeholder identification
F.    Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Answer: CDE

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2014 Latest CompTIA CN0-201 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Voice over IP is an application that requires efficient use of bandwidth and reliability. VoIP must not suffer the delays that can be seen at times with Web sites and Web applications. Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?

A.    RTP
B.    QoS
C.    DNS
D.    RSTP

Answer: B

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2014 Latest CompTIA CLO-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?

A.    Pay as you go agreements
B.    Short-term financial commitment
C.    Tailor-made applications based on client needs
D.    Vendor lock-in potential

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?

A.    It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B.    It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C.    It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D.    It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?

A.    Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B.    Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C.    Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D.    Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?

A.    HTML, IDM, JSON
B.    HTML, IDM, XML
C.    HTML, JSON, XML
D.    DM, JSON, XML

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Web hosting is a service that enables customers to deploy a website quickly. This is an example
of:

A.    IaaS.
B.    SaaS
C.    PaaS.
D.    On-demand software.
E.    None of the above.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in a given time?

A.    Network bandwidth
B.    Network QoS
C.    Network latency
D.    Network speed

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
How can the internal IT department successfully react to cloud computing?

A.    By becoming an external cloud provider
B.    By becoming an internal cloud provider
C.    By outsourcing all IT services
D.    By solely focusing on security issues

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a business reason for IT outsourcing and cloud computing?

A.    Improving cost structure
B.    Improving customer satisfaction
C.    Increasing control over IT systems
D.    Decrease of security issues

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following assets have risks related to a cloud provider going out of business?

A.    Data stored at the provider
B.    Cloud management tools housed at the provider
C.    Investment in servers at the provider
D.    Machine capacity at the provider

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is included in a compliance audit?

A.    Analyzing chargeback agreements
B.    Analyzing cloud provider Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
C.    Analyzing identity management and access controls
D.    Analyzing the provider release calendar

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
How does cloud computing influence service operations?

A.    Cloud computing is more cost effective
B.    The provisioning of servers and services is quicker or ceases to be an issue
C.    The provisioning of servers and services can be much slower
D.    The security level will increase

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Cloud computing brings new challenges to ___________ management, because traditional licensing models do not fit well with scalable resources.

A.    commercial
B.    financial
C.    legal
D.    service

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is indicated by a high number of variations of different virtual servers?

A.    Lack of an automated provisioning process of the virtual machines
B.    Lack of automation of virtual machine image manufacturing
C.    Lack of manpower to monitor the virtual machines
D.    Lack of physical servers to accommodate the different virtual servers

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Cloud computing is priced according to ___________ or has ___________, rather than having upfront costs.

A.    recurring subscription, a yearly contract
B.    a yearly contract, usage-based charges
C.    recurring subscription, usage-based charges
D.    number of users, a yearly contract

Answer: C
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2014 Latest CompTIA CAS-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
At 10:35 a.m. a malicious user was able to obtain a valid authentication token which allowed read/write access to the backend database of a financial company. At 10:45 a.m. the security administrator received multiple alerts from the company’s statistical anomaly-based IDS about a company database administrator performing unusual transactions. At 10:55 a.m. the security administrator resets the database administrator’s password.
At 11:00 a.m. the security administrator is still receiving alerts from the IDS about unusual transactions from the same user. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the alerts?

A.    The IDS logs are compromised.
B.    The new password was compromised.
C.    An input validation error has occurred.
D.    A race condition has occurred.

Answer: D

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2014 Latest CompTIA ADR-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
An architectural review is BEST for finding which of the following security defects?

A.    Malware infection vectors
B.    SQL or other injection flaws
C.    Design flaws
D.    Zero-day vulnerabilities

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes a security risk that may have to be accepted when using a commercial cross-platform mobile application framework?

A.    Allowing code to run outside the app sandbox
B.    Installing HTML 5 support on user device
C.    Digest authentication without HTTPS
D.    Using native code libraries without source code review

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In an application architecture diagram, what categories of weaknesses are considered using Microsoft’s threat modeling process?

A.    Man-in-the-middle, Data injection, SQL Injection, Malware, Zero-day exploits
B.    Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability
C.    Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege
D.    Cross site scripting, Clickjacking, Data input validation, SSL, RSA security, Buffer overflow, Heap smashing, ARP injection

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Android’s kernel-level app sandbox provides security by:

A.    assigning a unique user ID (UID) to each app and running in a separate process.
B.    running all apps under an unprivileged group ID (GID).
C.    restricting read access to an app’s package to the kernel process.
D.    preventing an app’s data files from being read by any running process.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The digital certificate used to sign the production release should be:

A.    regenerated for each version of the app.
B.    stored inside the app package before deployment.
C.    stored in a secure location separate from the passphrase.
D.    stored with the source code so all developers can build the app.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement about native code in apps is TRUE?

A.    Native code is faster because it runs as a separate user ID (UID) giving it direct access to restricted APIs.
B.    Native code is run under the same user ID (UID) as the Java app and therefore comes under the same sandbox restrictions.
C.    Native code is executed by the kernel with increased privileges and is mainly used for root operations.
D.    Native code runs outside the Dalvik VM and therefore is not restricted by the sandbox.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When an app creates a configuration file in its private data directory the developer should ensure:

A.    that the file path is determined with getExternalStorageDirectory().
B.    that the file is created world writable.
C.    that file ownership is set to system.
D.    that the file is not created world readable.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An example of APIs protected by permissions would bE. (Select TWO).

A.    SIM card access
B.    Telephony functions
C.    File handling functions
D.    Encryption functions
E.    Network/data connections

Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
An app accessing protected APIs should use which manifest declaration?

A.    app-permissions
B.    add-permissions
C.    grant-permission
D.    uses-permission

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The MOST likely reason the developer might want to define their own permission in the manifest is because:

A.    they wish to ensure that only their app has the permission to launch their activities or access their private data.
B.    they wish to prevent the user from granting access to protected functionality by mistake.
C.    they wish to define a permission to access system APIs and native libraries.
D.    they wish to restrict access to a function in their app to only those apps which are specifically granted access by the user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Valid permission protection levels are. (Select TWO).

A.    private
B.    signature
C.    user
D.    public
E.    dangerous

Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
The checkCallingPermission() method is used when:

A.    the app needs to determine what permission is required for it to make a call.
B.    the app needs to determine if it should allow an incoming call from another app.
C.    the app needs to determine whether it has permission to make a call.
D.    the app needs to determine what permissions are required to call a specific API.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a more secure way for a developer to give 3rd party apps temporary access to resources in their app, such as opening attachments in an external editor?

A.    Make use of grantTempAccess()
B.    Make use of per-URI permissions
C.    Temporarily make files world readable
D.    Temporarily store files on SD Card

Answer: B

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2014 Latest CompTIA 220-701 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
A technician installs an additional hard drive controller. Which of the following processes will MOST likely prevent errors?

A.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Update the BIOS
3) Install the card
4) Install the driver
5) Upgrade the Card Firmware
B.    1) Install the card
2) Update the BIOS
3) Upgrade the Card Firmware
4) Install the driver
5) Apply System Updates
C.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Update the BIOS
D.    1) Update the BIOS
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Apply System Updates

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the MINIMUM Windows Experience Index recommended for using Aero enhancements in Windows 7?

A.    2.0
B.    3.0
C.    4.0
D.    5.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On a Windows XP machine, which of the following settings should be configured to allow dragging of files without holding the mouse button?

A.    ScrollLock
B.    StickyKeys
C.    MouseKeys
D.    ClickLock

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following utilities would be used to configure energy saving measures when a laptop switches to battery power?

A.    MSTSC
B.    ACPI
C.    GDI
D.    MSCONFIG

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A user states that they unplugged their mouse to clean the roller ball, but after plugging it back in the mouse no longer functions. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.    The mouse has a PS/2 connector which is not hot-swappable.
B.    The mouse roller ball is now too smooth to gain traction.
C.    The mouse was broken before the user unplugged to clean it.
D.    The mouse has a USB connector that is not getting enough power.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following features are available in Windows 7 Professional beyond those available in Windows 7 Home Premium?

A.    HomeGroup
B.    Windows XP Mode
C.    Aero Desktop
D.    Internet Explorer 8

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Traffic coming across port 443 is for which of the following protocols?

A.    SFTP
B.    FTP
C.    HTTP
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following security threats are MOST likely prevented through user training?

A.    Network Intrusion
B.    Adware Popups
C.    Social Engineering
D.    Spam Messages

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user states that whenever they try to launch a certain installed application, they hear unusual whirring/clicking sounds from their machine and the application never loads. Which of the following components would a technician MOST likely need to replace?

A.    Hard Disk Drive
B.    Optical Drive
C.    Power Supply Unit
D.    Case Fan

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user states that they are trying to project their laptop to a screen for a presentation. They have plugged the projector cable into their laptop, and turned the projector on, but no signal is found. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST?

A.    Ensure the projector is receiving power
B.    Verify the laptop is not running on battery
C.    Toggle the function key for displays
D.    Replace the projector cable with another

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are supported bus widths for a PCIe bus slot? (Select TWO).

A.    1x
B.    3x
C.    6x
D.    16x
E.    24x

Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the function of hyperthreading support within a CPU?

A.    Allows the core to create a separate space to process threads
B.    Allows the processor to handle multiple threads per core
C.    Allows the core to shift to a higher clock speed based on thread count
D.    Allows the processor to reject certain threads to increase performance

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the MOST likely default configuration for a serial port?

A.    8 Data bits, Odd Parity, 1 stop bit
B.    8 Data bits, Even Parity, 2 stop bits
C.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1.5 Stop bits
D.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1 Stop bit

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are impact printers? (Select TWO).

A.    Line printer
B.    Dot matrix printer
C.    Thermal transfer printer
D.    Inkjet printer
E.    Xerographic printer

Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
After creating backups of critical system and user data, which of the following is the BEST location to store the backups?

A.    In the supply closet so anyone can access them if needed
B.    Near the server for easy access to restore files
C.    Locked in a cabinet in the IT Manager’s office
D.    At a secure off-site storage facility

Answer: D
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Official 2014 Latest CompTIA SY0-401 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols operates at the HIGHEST level of the OSI model?

A.    ICMP
B.    IPSec
C.    SCP
D.    TCP

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following should an administrator implement to research current attack methodologies?

A.    Design reviews
B.    Honeypot
C.    Vulnerability scanner
D.    Code reviews

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Drag and Drop Question
Task: Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list.
 clip_image002
Answer:
 clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 4
Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server from cross-site scripting attacks?

A.    Intrusion Detection System
B.    Flood Guard Protection
C.    Web Application Firewall
D.    URL Content Filter

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing?

A.    MAC Filtering
B.    WPA – LEAP
C.    WPA – PEAP
D.    Enabled SSID

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:
– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2
 clip_image002[6]
 clip_image002[8]
Answer:
Use the following answer for this simulation task. Below table has all the answers required for this question.
 clip_image002[10]

QUESTION 7
Jane, a security administrator, needs to implement a secure wireless authentication method that uses a remote RADIUS server for authentication.
Which of the following is an authentication method Jane should use?

A.    WPA2-PSK
B.    WEP-PSK
C.    CCMP
D.    LEAP

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Computer evidence at a crime scene is documented with a tag stating who had possession of the evidence at a given time.
Which of the following does this illustrate?

A.    System image capture
B.    Record time offset
C.    Order of volatility
D.    Chain of custody

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department?

A.    Time of day restrictions
B.    Group based privileges
C.    User assigned privileges
D.    Domain admin restrictions

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is being tested when a company’s payroll server is powered off for eight hours?

A.    Succession plan
B.    Business impact document
C.    Continuity of operations plan
D.    Risk assessment plan

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.
Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?

A.    Malicious insider threat
B.    Zero-day
C.    Client-side attack
D.    Malicious add-on

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?

A.    Peer to Peer
B.    Mobile devices
C.    Social networking
D.    Personally owned devices

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A network administrator is responsible for securing applications against external attacks. Every month, the underlying operating system is updated. There is no process in place for other software updates.
Which of the following processes could MOST effectively mitigate these risks?

A.    Application hardening
B.    Application change management
C.    Application patch management
D.    Application firewall review

Answer: C

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