Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-680 Exam Dump Free Download(21-30)

QUESTION 21
You have two computers named Computer1 and Computer2 that run Windows 7. Both computers are members of an Active Directory domain. Windows Remote Management (WinRM) is
enabled on both computers.
You need to remotely create additional disk volumes on Computer1 from Computer2. What should you do?

A.    On Computer2, run Winrs and then run Diskpart.
B.    On Computer2, run Winrs and then run Diskmgmt.msc.
C.    On Computer1, install the Telnet Client and then run Diskpart from Computer2.
D.    On Computer1, install the Telnet Client and then use Disk Management from Computer2.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Winrs You can use WinRS to execute command-line utilities or scripts on a remote computer. To use WinRS, open a command prompt and prefix the command that you want to run on the remote computer with the WinRS -r: RemoteComputerName command. For example, to execute the Ipconfig command on a computer named Aberdeen, issue the command: WinRS -r:Aberdeen ipconfig The Windows Remote Management service allows you to execute commands on a remote computer, either from the command prompt using WinRS or from Windows PowerShell. Before you can use WinRS or Windows PowerShell for remote management tasks, it is necessary to configure the target computer using the WinRM command. To configure the target computer, you must run the command WinRM quickconfig from an elevated command prompt.
Diskpart: Microsoft command-line tool Diskpart is used to create and format volumes on the target computer.

QUESTION 22
A remote user has a computer that runs Windows 7. The user reports that he receives several error messages while using an application.
You do not have remote access to the user’s computer. You need to tell the user how to create
screenshots of the actions he performs on the computer. The solution must track the mouse actions that the user performs. What should you instruct the user to do?

A.    Press ALT + PrintScreen.
B.    Run Psr.exe and then click Start Record.
C.    From Mouse Properties, select Display pointer trails.
D.    Run Snippingtool.exe, click New, and then click Window Snip.

Answer: B
Explanation:
How do I use Problem Steps Recorder?You can use Problem Steps Recorder to automatically capture the steps you take on a computer, including a text description of where you clicked and a picture of the screen during each click (called a screen shot). Once you capture these steps, you can save them to a file that can be used by a support professional or someone else helping you with a computer problem.NotesWhen you record steps on your computer, anything you type will not be recorded. If what you type is an important part of recreating the problem you’re trying to solve, use the comment feature described below to highlight where the problem is occurring.

QUESTION 23
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer’s disk is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
 clip_image002
You need to extend volume C.
What should you do first?

A.    Back up and delete volume D.
B.    Convert disk 0 to a dynamic disk.
C.    Remove the crash dump from volume C.
D.    Move the paging file from volume C to volume E.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Extend a Basic Volume
You can add more space to existing primary partitions and logical drives by extending them into adjacent unallocated space on the same disk. To extend a basic volume, it must be raw or formatted with the NTFS file system. You can extend a logical drive within contiguous free space in the extended partition that contains it. If you extend a logical drive beyond the free space available in the extended partition, the extended partition grows to contain the logical drive. For logical drives, boot, or system volumes, you can extend the volume only into contiguous space and only if the disk can be upgraded to a dynamic disk. For other volumes, you can extend the volume into noncontiguous space, but you will be prompted to convert the disk to dynamic.

QUESTION 24
You need to increase the size of a paging file. What should you do?

A.    From Disk Management, shrink the boot partition.
B.    From Disk Management, shrink the system partition.
C.    From System, modify the Advanced system settings.
D.    From System, modify the System protection settings.

Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Click Start, right-click My Computer, and then click Properties.
2. In the System Properties dialog box, click the Advanced tab.
3. In the Performance pane, click Settings.
4. In the Performance Options dialog box, click the Advanced tab.
5. In the Virtual memory pane, click Change.
6. Change the Initial size value and the Maximum size value to a higher value, click Set, and then click OK.
7. Click OK to close the Performance Options dialog box, and then click OK to close the System Properties dialog box.

QUESTION 25
You have a computer that runs Windows Vista (x86). You need to perform a clean installation of Windows 7 (64-bit). What should you do?

A.    From the Windows 7 installation media, run Rollback.exe.
B.    From the Windows 7 installation media, run Migsetup.exe.
C.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media. From the Install Windows dialog box,
select the Upgrade option.
D.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media. From the Install Windows dialog box,
select the Custom (advanced) option.

Answer: D
Explanation:
When you are performing a clean installation, you should select Custom (Advanced). Almost all installations ofm Windows 7 that you will perform will be of the Custom (Advanced) type rather than upgrades. You can initiate upgrade installations only from within Windows Vista or Windows 7.NOT Rollback, Migsetup, or Upgrade:Specified clean installation not migration, update or rollback.

QUESTION 26
Your network consists of a single Active Directory forest.
You have 50 portable computers and 50 desktop computers. All computers have 32-bit hardware. You plan to deploy Windows 7 and 10 corporate applications to the computers by using a custom image.
You need to prepare for the deployment by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?

A.    On one computer, install Windows 7 and the corporate applications.
B.    On one portable computer and one desktop computer, install Windows 7 and the corporate applications.
C.    On a server, install and run the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit.
D.    On a server, install the Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK) and run Windows System Image Manager
(Windows SIM).

Answer: A
Explanation:
To prepare the reference computer for the user, you use the Sysprep utility with the /generalize option to remove hardware-specific information from the Windows installation and the /oobe option to configure the computer to boot to Windows Welcome upon the next restart. Open an elevated command prompt on the reference computer and run the following command: c:\windows\system32\sysprep\sysprep.exe /oobe /generalize /shutdown.
Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computerspecific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.

QUESTION 27
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You need to copy files to a virtual hard disk (VHD) file. What should you do first?

A.    Run Dism.exe and specify the /image and /online parameters.
B.    Open Windows Explorer, right-click the VHD file and select Open.
C.    Run Diskpart.exe and then run the select and attach commands.
D.    Run Imagex.exe and specify the /mountrw and /append parameters.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Diskpart Microsoft command-line tool Diskpart is used to create and format volumes on the target computer.SelectShift the focus to an object.AttachAttaches a virtual disk file.

QUESTION 28
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You create an application shim for a third-party application by using the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT). You need to ensure that the application shim is applied the next time you run the application. What should you do first?

A.    Run Sdbinst.exe.
B.    Run Msiexec.exe.
C.    Right-click the application executable file and modify the compatibility settings.
D.    Right-click the application executable file and modify the advanced security settings.

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. Multiple users log on to the computer. The computer has five removable devices. You need to ensure that users can only access removable devices that have been previously installed on the computer.
What should you modify in the Local Group Policy?

A.    Enable the Prevent redirection of USB devices setting.
B.    Enable the Prevent installation of removable devices setting.
C.    Disable the WPD Devices: Deny read access setting.
D.    Disable the Allow administrators to override Device Installation Restriction policies setting.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Prevent installation of removable devices
This policy setting allows you to prevent Windows from installing removable devices. A device is considered removable when the driver for the device to which it is connected indicates that the device is removable. For example, a Universal Serial Bus (USB) device is reported to be removable by the drivers for the USB hub to which the device is connected. This policy setting takes precedence over any other policy setting that allows Windows to install a device. If you enable this policy setting, Windows is prevented from installing removable devices and existing removable devices cannot have their drivers updated. If you enable this policy setting on a remote desktop server, the policy setting affects redirection of removable devices from a remote desktop client to the remote desktop server. If you disable or do not configure this policy setting, Windows can install and update device drivers for removable devices as allowed or prevented by other policy settings. NOT Prevent redirection of USB devicesThis policy setting prevents redirection of USB devices. If you enable this setting, an alternate driver for USB devices cannot be loaded. If you disable or do not configure this setting, an alternate driver for USB devices can be loaded.

QUESTION 30
Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs a custom network application.
Server1 has the following IP addresses:
– 192.168.15.10
– 192.168.15.11
You need to ensure that a client computer resolves server1.contoso.com to only the 192.168.15.11 IP address. What should you do from the computer?

A.    Edit the hosts file.
B.    Edit the lmhosts file.
C.    Run Ipconfig.exe /flushdns.
D.    Run Netsh interface ipv4 reset.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Differences Between the HOSTS and LMHOSTS Files in Windows NT In Windows NT, the HOSTS file is for TCP/IP utilities, and the LMHOSTS file is for LAN Manager NET utilities. If you cannot PING another computer (using a friendly name), check the HOSTS file. If you cannot NET VIEW a server using only the TCP/IP protocol, check the LMHOSTS file.
Hosts fileThe Hosts file is a common way to resolve a host name to an IP address through a locally stored text file that contains IP-address-to-host-name mappings. On most UNIX- based computers, this file is /etc/hosts. On Windows-based computers, this file is the Hosts file in the systemroot\System32\Drivers\Etc folder. The following describes the attributes of the Hosts file for Windows: A single entry consists of an IP (IPv4 or IPv6) address and one or more host names. The Hosts file is dynamically loaded into the DNS client resolver cache, which Windows Sockets applications use to resolve a host name to an IP address on both local and remote subnets. When you create entries in the Hosts file and save it, its contents are automatically loaded into the DNS client resolver cache. The Hosts file contains a default entry for the host name localhost. The Hosts file can be edited with any text editor. Each host name is limited to 255 characters. Entries in the Hosts file for Windows-based computers are not case sensitive. The advantage of using a Hosts file is that users can customize it for themselves. Each user can create whatever entries they want, including easy-to-remember nicknames for frequently accessed resources. However, the individual maintenance required for the Hosts file does not scale well to storing large numbers of FQDN mappings or reflecting changes to IP addresses for servers and network resources. The solution for the large-scale storage and maintenance of FQDN mappings is DNS. The solution for the maintenance of FQDN mappings for changing IP addresses is DNS dynamic update.NOT LMHOSTS FileThe LMHOSTS file is a local text file that maps IP addresses to NetBIOS names of remote servers with which you want to communicate over the TCP/IP protocol. Windows recognizes names instead of IP addresses for network requests and a name discovery process is used to correctly route network requests with TCP/IP. Because the name discovery process is generally not routed by an IP router, the LMHOSTS file allows Windows machines to communicate using TCP/IP across a subnet.
– LMHOSTS contains IP address to “NetBIOS over TCP/IP” name translations.
– LMHOSTS is only used by the NBT (NetBIOS over TCP/IP) interface.
– LMHOSTS file contains some valuable additions to the LAN Manager and Windows for Workgroups
– LMHOSTS file, such as the ability to support routed domain logon validation.
– LMHOSTS contains static information about TCP/IP addresses, but using logon scripts and/or the replicator service, the “master” file can be distributed transparently across all stations.
– By default, the LMHOSTS file should be located in the directory %SYSTEMROOT%\SYSTEM32\DRIVERS \ETC (usually
C:\WINNT\SYSTEM32\DRIVERS\ETC).
Other info
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/105997

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QUESTION 11
You have a portable computer that runs Windows 7. You configure the computer to enter sleep mode after 10 minutes of inactivity. You do not use the computer for 15 minutes and discover that the computer has not entered sleep mode. You need to identify what is preventing the computer from entering sleep mode. What should you do?

A.    At a command prompt, run Powercfg energy.
B.    At a command prompt, run Systeminfo /s localhost.
C.    From Performance Monitor, review the System Summary.
D.    From Performance Information and Tools, review the detailed performance and system information.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Command-line Power Configuration
Powercfg.exe is a command-line utility that you can use from an administrative command prompt to manage Windows 7 power settings. It is possible to use Powercfg.exe to configure a number of Windows 7 powerrelated settings that you cannot configure through Group Policy or the Advanced Plan Settings dialog box. You can use Powercfg.exe to configure specific devices so that they are able to wake the computer from the Sleep state. You can also use Powercfg.exe to migrate power policies from one computer running Windows 7 to another by using the import and export functionality.
-energy
Check the computer for common energy-efficiency and battery life problems. Provides report in Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) format.For more information on Powercfg.exe, consult the following Microsoft TechNet document:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc748940.aspx.

QUESTION 12
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. Your network contains a VPN server that runs Windows Server 2008. You need to authenticate to the VPN server by using a smart card. Which authentication setting should you choose?

A.    CHAP
B.    EAP
C.    MS-CHAP v2
D.    PAP

Answer: B
Explanation:
VPN Server Software Requirements
VPN server software requirements for smart card access are relatively straightforward. The remote access servers must run Windows 2000 Server or later, have Routing and Remote Access enabled, and must support Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security (EAP-TLS). EAP-TLS is a mutual authentication mechanism developed for use in conjunction with security devices, such as smart cards and hardware tokens. EAP-TLS supports Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and VPN connections, and enables exchange of shared secret keys for MPPE, in addition to Ipsec. The main benefits of EAP-TLS are its resistance to brute-force attacks and its support for mutual authentication. With mutual authentication, both client and server must prove their identities to each other. If either client or server does not send a certificate to validate its identity, the connection terminates.Microsoft Windows ServerTM 2003 supports EAP-TLS for dial-up and VPN connections, which enables the use of smart cards for remote users. For more information about EAP-TLS, see the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) topic at www.microsoft.com/resources/documentation/windows/xp/all/proddocs/en-us/auth_eap.
mspx.
For more information about EAP certificate requirements, see the Microsoft Knowledge Base article “Certificate Requirements when you use EAP-TLS or PEAP with EAP-TLS” at http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx? scid=814394.

QUESTION 13
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7.
The computer is a member of an Active Directory domain. The network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008. You log on to the computer by using an account named User1. You need to ensure that when you connect to Server1, you authenticate by using an account named Admin1. What should you do on Computer1?

A.    From User Accounts, select Link online IDs.
B.    From Windows CardSpace, select Add a card.
C.    From Credential Manager, select Add a Windows credential.
D.    From Local Security Policy, modify the Access this computer from the network user right.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Credential Manager
Credential Manager stores logon user name and passwords for network resources, including file servers, Web sites, and terminal services servers. Credential Manager stores user name and password data in the Windows Vault. You can back up the Windows Vault and restore it on other computers running Windows 7 as a method of transferring saved credentials from one computer to another. Although Credential Manager can be used to back up some forms of digital certificates, it cannot be used to back up and restore the self- signed Encrypting File System (EFS) certificates that Windows 7 generates automatically when you encrypt a file. For this reason, you must back up EFS certificates using other tools. You will learn about backing up EFS certificates later in this lesson.
 clip_image002[1]

QUESTION 14
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You create a HomeGroup. You need to secure the HomeGroup to meet the following requirements:
– Allow access to the HomeGroup when you are connected to private networks.
– Block access to the HomeGroup when you are connected to public networks.
What should you do?

A.    From Network and Sharing Center, modify the advanced sharing settings.
B.    From the HomeGroup settings in Control Panel, modify the advanced sharing settings.
C.    Configure the HomeGroup exception in Windows Firewall to include Home or work (private) networks
and block Public networks.
D.    Configure the File and Printer Sharing exception in Windows Firewall to include Home or work (private)
networks and block Public networks.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Windows Firewall does not allow you to create firewall rules for specific network locations on the basis of port address. Windows Firewall does not allow you to create rules that differentiate between the home and work network locations. You can only create rules that differentiate on the basis of home and work or public network locations.
HomeGroup Connections
This option decides how authentication works for connections to HomeGroup resources. If all computers in the HomeGroup have the same user name and passwords configured, you can set this option to allow Windows to manage HomeGroup connections. If different user accounts and passwords are present, you should configure the option to use user accounts and passwords to connect to other computers. This option is available only in the Home/Work network profile.

QUESTION 15
A user named User1 uses a shared computer that runs Windows 7. User1 is a member of group named Group1. The computer contains a folder named Folder1.
You need to configure the permissions on Folder1 to meet the following requirements:
– User1 must be allowed to delete all files in Folder1.
– Members of Group1 must be able to create files in Folder1.
– All other members of Group1 must be prevented from deleting files they did not create in Folder1.
– All users must be prevented from modifying the permissions on Folder1.
What should you do?

A.    Assign Group1 the Write permission. Assign User1 the Modify permission.
B.    Assign Group1 the Modify permission. Assign User1 the Write permission.
C.    Deny Group1 the Write permission. Assign User1 the Modify permission.
D.    Deny Group1 the Modify permission. Assign User1 the Write permission.

Answer: A
Explanation:
File and Folder Permissions
ReadFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfoldersFiles: Permits viewing or accessing of the file’s contentsWriteFolders: Permits adding of files and subfoldersFiles:
Permits writing to a fileRead & ExecuteFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfolders as well as executing of files; inherited by files and folders Files: Permits viewing and accessing of the file’s contents as well as executing of the fileList Folder ContentsFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfolders as well as executing of files; inherited by folders onlyFiles: N/AModifyFolders: Permits reading and writing of files and subfolders; allows deletion of the folderFiles: Permits reading and writing of the file; allows deletion of the fileFull ControlFolders: Permits reading, writing, changing, and deleting of files and subfoldersFiles: Permits reading, writing, changing and deleting of the file

QUESTION 16
Your company has an internal Web site that requires HTTPS. The Web site’s certificate is self-signed. You have a computer that runs Windows 7 and Windows Internet Explorer 8. You use HTTPS to browse to the Web site and receive the following warning message. There is a problem with this website’s security certificate. You need to prevent the warning message from appearing when you access the Web site. What should you do?

A.    From Internet Explorer, enable InPrivate Browsing.
B.    From Internet Explorer, add the Web site to the Trusted sites zone.
C.    From Certificate Manager, import the Web sites certificate into your Personal store.
D.    From Certificate Manager, import the Web sites certificate into your Trusted Root Certification
Authorities store.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Certificate Manager
A certificate manager can approve certificate enrollment and revocation requests, issue certificates, and manage certificates. This role can be configured by assigning a user or group the Issue and Manage Certificatespermission. When you assign this permission to a user or group, you can further refine their ability to manage certificates by group and by certificate template. For example, you might want to implement a restriction that they can only approve requests or revoke smart card logon certificates for users in a certain office or organizational unit that is the basis for a security group.Importing CertificatesYou may restore certificates and the corresponding private keys from a file.
6. Right-click the certificate store you want to import, and click Install PFX on the context menu.
7. The Certificate Import Wizard launches. Click Next.
8. In the File name text box, type the name of the certificate file that you want to import. Alternatively, you can find the file by clicking Browse.
9. Click Next. If the file specified is a Personal Information Exchange-KCS #12 (*.pfx), you will be prompted for the password. Enter the password to import the file. Click Next.
10. On the next page, select where you’d like to store the certificate. Click Next.
11. The next wizard page contains summary information about the file that you are importing. Click Finish to import the file. The certificate(s) are now ready for use by the system.

QUESTION 17
Your network has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five client computers that run Windows 7. All client computers are configured to use BranchCache. At the branch office, a computer named Computer1 is  experiencing performance issues. You need to temporarily prevent all computers from retrieving cached content from Computer1. What should you do on Computer1?

A.    At the command prompt, run Netsh branchcache flush.
B.    At the command prompt, run Netsh branchcache dump.
C.    Modify the Configure BranchCache for network files Group Policy setting.
D.    Modify the Set percentage of disk space used for client computer cache Group Policy setting.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Flush
Deletes the contents of the local BranchCache cache.

QUESTION 18
You have a standalone computer that runs Windows 7. Multiple users share the computer. You need to ensure that you can read the content of all encrypted files on the computer. What should you do?

A.    Run the Certificates Enrollment wizard and then run Certutil.exe -importpfx.
B.    Run the Certificates Enrollment wizard and then run Certutil.exe -installcert.
C.    Run Cipher.exe /r and then add a data recovery agent from the local security policy.
D.    Run Cipher.exe /rekey and then import a security template from the local security policy.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cipher
Displays or alters the encryption of folders and files on NTFS volumes. Used without parameters, cipher displays the encryption state of the current folder and any files it contains. Administrators can use Cipher.exe to encrypt and decrypt data on drives that use the NTFS file system and to view the encryption status of files and folders from a command prompt. The updated version adds another security option. This new option is the ability to overwrite data that you have deleted so that it cannot be recovered and accessed.When you delete files or folders, the data is not initially removed from the hard disk. Instead, the space on the disk that was occupied by the deleted data is “deallocated.” After it is deallocated, the space is available for use when new data is written to the disk. Until the space is overwritten, it is possible to recover the deleted data by using a low-level disk editor or data-recovery software.
If you create files in plain text and then encrypt them, Encrypting File System (EFS) makes a backup copy of the file so that, if an error occurs during the encryption process, the data is not lost. After the encryption is complete, the backup copy is deleted. As with other deleted files, the data is not completely removed until it has been overwritten. The new version of the Cipher utility is designed to prevent unauthorized recovery of such data.
/K Creates a new certificate and key for use with EFS. If this option is chosen, all the other options will be ignored. By default, /k creates a certificate and key that conform to current group plicy. If ECC is specified, a self-signed certificate will be created with the supplied key size. /R Generates an EFS recovery key and certificate, then writes them to a .PFX file (containing certificate and private key) and a .CER file (containing only the certificate). An administrator may add the contents of the .CER to the EFS recovery policy to create the recovery for users, and import the .PFX to recover individual files. If SMARTCARD is specified, then writes the recovery key and certificate to a smart card. A .CER file is generated (containing only the certificate). No .PFX file is genereated. By default, /R creates an 2048-bit RSA recovery key and certificate. If EECC is specified, it must be followed by a key size of 356, 384, or 521.

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are members of the domain. All servers are located in the main office. You have a portable computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7. Computer1 is joined to the domain and is located in a branch office.A file server named Server1 contains a shared folder named Share1.
You need to configure Computer1 to meet the following requirements:
– Minimize network traffic between the main office and the branch office.
– Ensure that Computer1 can only access resources in Share1 while it is connected to the network.
What should you do?

A.    On Computer1, enable offline files.
B.    On Computer1, enable transparent caching.
C.    On Server1, configure DirectAccess.
D.    On Server1, configure Share1 to be available offline.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Transparent Caching
When you enable transparent caching, Windows 7 keeps a cached copy of all files that a user opens from shared folders on the local volume. The first time a user opens the file, the file is stored in the local cache. When the user opens the file again, Windows 7 checks the file to ensure that the cached copy is up to date and if it is, opens that instead. If the copy is not up to date, the client opens the copy hosted on the shared folder, also placing it in the local cache. Using a locally cached copy speeds up access to files stored on file servers on remote networks from the client. When a user changes a file, the client writes the changes to the copy of the file stored on the shared folder. When the shared folder is unavailable, the transparently cached copy is also unavailable. Transparent caching does not attempt to keep the local copy synced with the copy of the file on the remote file server as the Offline Files feature does. Transparent caching works on all files in a shared folder, not just those that you have configured to be available offline.

QUESTION 20
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
Your network contains a DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. The server is configured as a Network Access Protection (NAP) enforcement point.
You need to configure the computer as a NAP client.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    From Services, set the Netlogon service Startup Type to Automatic.
B.    From Services, set the Network Access Protection Agent service Startup Type to Automatic.
C.    From the NAP Client Configuration console, configure the user interface settings.
D.    From the NAP Client Configuration console, enable the DHCP Quarantine Enforcement Client.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Network Access Protection
Network Access Protection (NAP) is a feature in Windows Server 2008 that controls access to network resources based on a client computer’s identity and compliance with corporate governance policy. NAP allows network administrators to define granular levels of network access based on who a client is, the groups to which the client belongs, and the degree to which that client is compliant with corporate governance policy. If a client is not compliant, NAP provides a mechanism to automatically bring the client back into compliance and then dynamically increase its level of network access.NAP Client ConfigurationNetwork Access Protection (NAP), a new feature in Windows Vista?and Windows Server?2008, allows you to control the access of client computers to network resources based on computer identity and compliance with corporate governance policy. To implement NAP, you must configure NAP settings on both servers and client computers. There are three tools that you can use to configure NAP client settings: The NAP Client Configuration console provides a graphical user interface with which you can configure NAP client settings on the local computer or in a configuration file that you can save and apply to other computers. The Netsh commands for NAP client provide a command-line tool that you can use to configure client computers or to create a configuration file that you can save and apply to other computers. If you want to manage NAP client settings on domain member client computers, you can use the Group Policy Management Console and the Group Policy Management Editor. When you configure NAP client settings in Group Policy, these settings are applied on NAP-capable domain member client computers when Group Policy is refreshed.To enable and disable the DHCP enforcement client by using the Windows interface
1. To open the NAP Client Configuration console, click Start, click All Programs, click Accessories, click Run, type NAPCLCFG.MSC, and then click OK.
2. Click Enforcement Clients.
3. Right-click DHCP Enforcement Client, and then click Enable or Disable.Network Access
Protection Agent
The Network Access Protection (NAP) agent service collects and manages health information for client computers on a network. Information collected by NAP agent is used to make sure that the client computer has the required software and settings. If a client computer is not compliant with health policy, it can be provided with restricted network access until its configuration is updated. Depending on the configuration of health policy, client computers might be automatically updated so that users quickly regain full network access without having to manually update their computer.

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QUESTION 1
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer has System Protection enabled. You need to retain only the last System Protection snapshot of the computer. All other snapshots must be deleted. What should you do?

A.    Run Disk Cleanup for Programs and features.
B.    Run Disk Cleanup for System Restore and Shadow Copies.
C.    From the System Protection Restore settings, select Turn off System Restore.
D.    From the System Protection Restore settings, select Only restore previous versions of files.

Answer: B
Explanation:
 clip_image001
Shadow info:
Shadow copies are automatically saved as part of a restore point. If system protection is enabled, Windows 7 automatically creates shadow copies of files that have been modified since the last restore point was created. By default, new restore points are created every seven days or whenever a significant system change (such as a driver or application installation) occurs.

QUESTION 2
You have a reference computer that runs Windows 7. You plan to deploy an image of the computer. You create an answer file named answer.xml. You need to ensure that the installation applies the answer file after you deploy the image. Which command should you run before you capture the image?

A.    Imagex.exe /append answer.xml /check.
B.    Imagex.exe /mount answer.xml /verify.
C.    Sysprep.exe /reboot /audit /unattend:answer.xml.
D.    Sysprep.exe /generalize /oobe /unattend:answer.xml.

Answer: D
Explanation:
To prepare the reference computer for the user, you use the Sysprep utility with the /generalize option to remove hardware-specific information from the Windows installation and the /oobe option to configure the computer to boot to Windows Welcome upon the next restart. Open an elevated command prompt on the reference computer and run the following command: c:\windows\system32\sysprep\sysprep.exe /oobe /generalize /shutdown Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computer-specific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.

QUESTION 3
You have a computer that runs Windows Vista Service Pack 2 (SP2). You need to upgrade the computer to Windows 7. What should you do?

A.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Upgrade option.
B.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Custom (advanced) option.
C.    From Windows Vista, run Setup.exe from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Upgrade option.
D.    From Windows Vista, run Setup.exe from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Custom option.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Upgrading Windows Vista to Windows 7 instructionsAccess the Windows 7 installation source and double-click Setup.exe. When prompted by User Account Control, click Allow. This loads the Install Windows page. Click Install Now.Other NotesYou can upgrade computers running Windows Vista to Windows 7. When you upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7, all documents, settings, applications, and user accounts that existed on the computer running Windows Vista are available when the upgrade is finished. The advantage to an upgrade is that it allows you to keep the current application configuration. When you perform a migration, you need to reinstall the user’s applications on the new computer. As mentioned previously, this can be problematic in organizations that are not careful about keeping track of which specific set of applications are installed on each user’s computer. Prior to attempting to perform the upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7, you should run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor. The Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is an application that you can download from Microsoft’s Web site that will inform you if Windows 7 supports a computer running the current hardware and software configuration of Windows Vista. Prior to running the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor, you should ensure that all hardware that you want to use with Windows 7, such as printers, scanners, and cameras, are connected to the computer. The Upgrade Advisor generates a report that informs you of which applications and devices are known to have problems with Windows
7. A similar compatibility report is generated during the upgrade process, but the version created by the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is more likely to be up to date.

QUESTION 4
You plan to deploy Windows 7 to 100 computers on your corporate network.
You install Windows 7 on a computer. You and need to prepare the computer to be imaged. What should you do before you create the image of the computer?

A.    At the command prompt, run the Dism command.
B.    At the command prompt, run the Sysprep command.
C.    Start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run the ImageX
command.
D.    Start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run the Wpeutil
command.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Sysprep
Sysprep is a tool designed for corporate system administrators, OEMs, and others who need to deploy the Windows?XP operating system on multiple computers. After performing the initial setup steps on a single system, you can run Sysprep to prepare the sample computer for cloning. Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computer-specific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.NOT ImagexImageX is a command- line tool that enables original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) and corporations to capture, to modify, and to apply file-based disk images for rapid deployment. ImageX works with Windows image (.wim) files for copying to a network, or it can work with other technologies that use .wim images, such as Windows Setup, Windows Deployment Services (Windows DS), and the System Management Server (SMS) Operating System Feature Deployment Pack.NOT DismDeployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) is a command-line tool used to service Windows?images offline before deployment. You can use it to install, uninstall, configure, and update Windows features, packages, drivers, and international settings. Subsets of the DISM servicing commands are also available for servicing a running operating systemNOT WpeutilThe Windows PE utility (Wpeutil) is a command-line tool that enables you to run various commands in a Windows PE session. For example, you can shut down or restart Windows PE, enable or disable a firewall, set language settings, and initialize a network.

QUESTION 5
You have a new computer that does not have an operating system installed.
You have a virtual hard disk (VHD) that contains an installation of Windows 7.
You start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE).
You create a partition on the computer and copy the VHD to the partition.
You need to configure the computer to start from the VHD. Which tools should you use?

A.    Diskpart.exe and Bcdboot.exe
B.    Imagex.exe and Bcdedit.exe
C.    Scanstate.exe and Loadstate.exe
D.    Wpeutil.exe and Dism.exe

Answer: A
Explanation:
Diskpart
Microsoft command-line tool Diskpart is used to create and format volumes on the target computer.Bcdboot You now want to apply this customized image to the hard disks of two new computers you have purchased without operating systems. You boot each computer in turn from the Windows PE media and use ImageX to install the image. Your final step, to make the image bootable, is to use BCDboot from Windows PE to initialize the BCD store and copy boot environment files to the system partition. When you reboot each new computer, it will boot into Windows 7 and will have the same settings configured and applications installed as your original computer. Take care you are not violating any licensing conditions.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains 100 computers that run Windows XP. You need to identify which applications installed on all of the computers can run on Windows 7. You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you install?

A.    Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT)
B.    Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit
C.    Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
D.    Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK)

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) 5.6 enables software developers, independent software vendors (ISVs), and IT professionals who work in a corporate environment to determine, before deployment within the organization, whether their applications are compatible with a new version of the Windows?operating system. ACT also enables such individuals to determine how an update to the new version will affect their applications.
You can use the ACT features to:
– Verify your application’s, device’s, and computer’s compatibility with a new version of the Windows operating system, including determining your risk assessment.
– Verify a Windows update’s compatibility, including determining your risk assessment.
– Become involved in the ACT Community, including sharing your application assessment with other ACT users.
– Test your applications for issues related to User Account Control (UAC) by using the Standard User Analyzer (SUA) tool.
– Test your Web applications and Web sites for compatibility with new releases and security updates to Internet Explorer? by using the Internet Explorer Compatibility Test Tool.

QUESTION 7
Your network consists of a single IPv4 subnet. The subnet contains 20 computers that run Windows 7. You add a new computer named Computer1 to the subnet. You discover that Computer1 has an IP address of 169.254.34.12. You cannot connect to other computers on the network. Other computers on the network can connect to each other. You need to ensure that you can connect to all computers on the network. What should you do?

A.    Turn off Windows Firewall.
B.    Run Ipconfig.exe /renew.
C.    Configure a static TCP/IP address.
D.    Run Netsh.exe interface ipv4 install.

Answer: C
Explanation:
[Need better justification]
Configuring static IP addresses
When you assign a static IP address, you need to tell the computer the IP address you want to use, the subnet mask for this IP address, and, if necessary, the default gateway to use for internetwork communications. An IP address is a numeric identifier for a computer. Ip addressing schemes vary according to how your network is configured, but they’re normally assigned based on a particular network segment.

QUESTION 8
Your network consists of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a computer named computer1.contoso.com. Your network is configured to use only IPv6. You need to request that a DNS record be created to enable users to connect to your computer by using the name dev.contoso.com.
Which type of record should you request?

A.    A
B.    AAAA
C.    HINFO
D.    NAPTR

Answer: B
Explanation:
The resolution of host names to IPv6 addresses is accomplished through DNS (apart from link-local addresses that are not stored by DNS and resolve automatically). The procedure is the same as for IPv4 address resolution with the computer name and IPv6 address pair being stored in a AAAA (quad-A) DNS resource record, which is equivalent to an A or host record for IPv4. Reverse DNS lookup that returns a computer name for an IPv6 address is implemented by a pointer (PTR) DNS resource record that is referred to the IPv6 reverse lookup zone (or tree) ipv6.arpa, which is the equivalent of the in-addr.arpa reverse lookup zone in Ipv4.
AAAAAn AAAA (quad-A) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address.AAn A (address) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv4 address.HINFOHost information (HINFO) resource record. Specifies the type of CPU and operating system in the cpu_type and os_type fields, respectively, for the host DNS domain name in the owner field. Well-known CPU and operating system types that are most often used are noted in RFC 1700. This information can be used by application protocols such as FTP, which use special procedures when communicating with computers of a known CPU and operating system type.
NAPTR
The NAPTR represents a Naming Authority Pointer. NAPTR records map between sets of URNs, URLs and plain domain names and suggest to clients what protocol should be used to talk to the mapped resource. Each NAPTR record contains a service name, a set of flags, a regexp rule, an order value, a preference and a replacement. Multiple records can be chained together in a cascade to rewrite URIs in fairly sophisticated, but deterministic ways. These cascading rules have been standardized in RFC2915 and RFC3403.

QUESTION 9
Your network has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five client computers that run Windows 7. All servers are located in the main office. All servers have BranchCache enabled. Users at the branch office report that it takes several minutes to open large files located in the main office. You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for branch office users to open files located in the main office. The solution must also reduce the amount of bandwidth used between the two offices. What should you do?

A.    At the main office, configure the Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler on all servers.
B.    At the main office, configure the servers to use Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS).
C.    At the branch office, configure the client computers to use BranchCache Hosted Cache mode.
D.    At the branch office, configure the client computers to use BranchCache Distributed Cache mode.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Distributed Cache ModeDistributed Cache mode uses peer caching to host the branch office cache among clients running Windows 7 on the branch office network. This means that each Distributed Cache mode client hosts part of the cache, but no single client hosts all the cache. When a client running Windows 7 retrieves content over the WAN, it places that content into its own cache. If another BranchCache client running Windows 7 attempts to access the same content, it is able to access that content directly from the first client rather than having to retrieve it over the WAN link. When it accesses the file from its peer, it also copies that file into its own cache. The advantage of distributed cache mode is that you can deploy it without having to deploy a server running Windows Server 2008 R2 locally in each branch office. The drawback of Distributed Cache mode is that the contents of the cache available on the branch office LAN depend on which clients are currently online. If a client needs a file that is held in the cache of a computer that is shut down, the client needs to retrieve the file from the host server across the WAN.Hosted Cache ModeHosted Cache mode uses a centralized local cache that hosted on a branch office server running Windows Server 2008 R2. You can enable the hosted cache server functionality on a server running Windows Server 2008 R2 that you use for other functions without a significant impact on performance. This is because if you found that files hosted at another location across the WAN were being accessed so frequently that there was a performance impact, you would use a solution like Distributed File System (DFS) to replicate them to the branch office instead of using BranchCache. The advantage of Hosted Cache mode over Distributed Cache mode is that the cache is centralized and always available. Parts of the distributed cache become unavailable when the clients hosting them shut down.Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)The Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) has two role services: the Compact Server and the IIS Server Extension. The Compact Server is a stand-alone HTTP or HTTPS file server, whereas the IIS Server Extension is an Internet Information Services (IIS) plug-in that requires a server running IIS. IIS Server ExtensionThe BITS IIS Server Extension lets you configure a server that is running IIS to allow BITS clients to perform background, resumable file uploads to IIS virtual directories. On completion of a file upload, the BITS Server can notify a Web application of the newly uploaded file. This allows the application to process the uploaded file. The Web application can then optionally reply to the client responsible for the upload.Compact ServerThe BITS Compact Server is a stand- alone HTTP or HTTPS file server, which allows applications to host files for BITS clients to download, and allows the asynchronous transfer of a limited number of large files between computers.QoS Packet SchedulerThe Quality of Service Packet Scheduler is a Windows platform component that is enabled by default on Windows Vista and Windows XP computers. It is, however, not enabled by default on Windows 2003 computers. This scheduler is designed to control the IP traffic for various network services, including Real Time Communications traffic. This component must be installed and enabled if the QoS markings described earlier for audio and video traffic are to be implemented by the IP stack.

QUESTION 10
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You create an Encrypting File System (EFS) recovery key and certificate. You need to ensure that your user account can decrypt all EFS files on the computer. What should you do?

A.    From Credential Manager, add a Windows credential.
B.    From Credential Manager, add a certificate-based credential.
C.    From the local computer policy, add a data recovery agent.
D.    From the local computer policy, modify the Restore files and directories setting.

Answer: C
Explanation:
EFS Recovery
Recovery Agents are certificates that allow the restoration of EFS encrypted files. When a recovery agent has been specified using local policies, all EFS encrypted files can be recovered using the recovery agent private key. You should specify a recovery agent before you allow users to encrypt files on a client running Windows 7. You can recover all files that users encrypt after the creation of a recovery agent using the recovery agent’s private key. You are not able to decrypt files that were encrypted before a recovery agent certificate was specified. You create an EFS recovery agent by performing the following steps:
1. Log on to the client running Windows 7 using the first account created, which is the default administrator account.
2. Open a command prompt and issue the command Cipher.exe /r:recoveryagent
3. This creates two files: Recoveryagent.cer and Recoveryagent.pfx. Cipher.exe prompts you to specify a password when creating Recoveryagent.pfx.
4. Open the Local Group Policy Editor and navigate to the \Computer Configuration\Windows Settings\Security Settings\Public Key Policies\Encrypting File System node. Right-click this node and then click Add Data Recovery Agent. Specify the location of Recoveryagent.cer to specify this certificate as the recovery agent.
5. To recover files, use the certificates console to import Recoveryagent.pfx. This is the recovery agent’s private key. Keep it safe because it can be used to open any encrypted file on the client running Windows 7.

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Official 2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-482 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You want to add a new CDC subscriber in ODI after you have started the Journal process, what steps do you need to go through in order to use this new subscriber?

A.    Drop Journal, remove existing subscribers, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
B.    Drop Journal,add anew subscriber, start Journal, and remove the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
C.    Drop Journal, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
D.    Add anew subscriber and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are loading a file into a database but the file name is unknown at design time and will have to be passed dynamically to a Package at run time; how do you achieve this?

A.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
B.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step
C.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
D.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Select the two correct statements about the Date Profiler.

A.    It can profile string dates written in a variety of formats, such as DD/MM/YYYY or MM/DD/YYYY.
B.    It provides a distribution for the day in the year, such as February 21, regardless of the year.
C.    It allows the EDQ user to define a valid range of dates.
D.    By clicking a date in blue, the user can drill down to the records that carried that value.
E.    It rejects February 29 as an invalid date.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which two ODI knowledge modules are included in the Application Adapter for Hadoop?

A.    IKM Oracle Incremental Update
B.    IKM Hive Transform
C.    IKM SQL to File Append
D.    IKM FiletoHive

Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E27101_01/doc.10/e27365/odi.htm

QUESTION 5
When working with delimited flat files, is it possible to enforce primary key on a flat file using a CKM?

A.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on some technologies such as flat files and JMS queues.
B.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on any technology.
C.    Yes, it is possible also to forward-engineer it to the flat file definition.
D.    Yes, but you have to save it as a fixed file.

Answer: A

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Official 2014 Latest CompTIA SY0-401 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols operates at the HIGHEST level of the OSI model?

A.    ICMP
B.    IPSec
C.    SCP
D.    TCP

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following should an administrator implement to research current attack methodologies?

A.    Design reviews
B.    Honeypot
C.    Vulnerability scanner
D.    Code reviews

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Drag and Drop Question
Task: Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list.
 clip_image002
Answer:
 clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 4
Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server from cross-site scripting attacks?

A.    Intrusion Detection System
B.    Flood Guard Protection
C.    Web Application Firewall
D.    URL Content Filter

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing?

A.    MAC Filtering
B.    WPA – LEAP
C.    WPA – PEAP
D.    Enabled SSID

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:
– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2
 clip_image002[6]
 clip_image002[8]
Answer:
Use the following answer for this simulation task. Below table has all the answers required for this question.
 clip_image002[10]

QUESTION 7
Jane, a security administrator, needs to implement a secure wireless authentication method that uses a remote RADIUS server for authentication.
Which of the following is an authentication method Jane should use?

A.    WPA2-PSK
B.    WEP-PSK
C.    CCMP
D.    LEAP

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Computer evidence at a crime scene is documented with a tag stating who had possession of the evidence at a given time.
Which of the following does this illustrate?

A.    System image capture
B.    Record time offset
C.    Order of volatility
D.    Chain of custody

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department?

A.    Time of day restrictions
B.    Group based privileges
C.    User assigned privileges
D.    Domain admin restrictions

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is being tested when a company’s payroll server is powered off for eight hours?

A.    Succession plan
B.    Business impact document
C.    Continuity of operations plan
D.    Risk assessment plan

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.
Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?

A.    Malicious insider threat
B.    Zero-day
C.    Client-side attack
D.    Malicious add-on

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?

A.    Peer to Peer
B.    Mobile devices
C.    Social networking
D.    Personally owned devices

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A network administrator is responsible for securing applications against external attacks. Every month, the underlying operating system is updated. There is no process in place for other software updates.
Which of the following processes could MOST effectively mitigate these risks?

A.    Application hardening
B.    Application change management
C.    Application patch management
D.    Application firewall review

Answer: C

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Official 2014 Latest Zend 200-550 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1 ^ 2

A.    1
B.    3
C.    2
D.    4
E.    -1

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the output of the following code?
echo “22” + “0.2”, 23 . 1;

A.    220.2231
B.    22.2231
C.    22.2,231
D.    56.2

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the output of the following code?
$first = “second”;
$second = “first”;
echo $$$first;

A.    “first”
B.    “second”
C.    an empty string
D.    an error

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your supervisor wants you to disallow PHP scripts to open remote HTTP and FTP resources using PHP’s file functions. Which php.ini setting should you change accordingly?
Answer: allow_url_fopen, allow_url_fopen=off, allow_url_fopen=Off, allow_url_fopen = off, allow_url_fopen = Off

QUESTION 5
Which of the following code snippets DO NOT write the exact content of the file “source.txt” to “target.txt”? (Choose 2)

A.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, fopen(“source.txt”, “r”));
B.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, readfile(“source.txt”));
C.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, join(file(“source.txt”), “\n”));
D.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, file_get_contents(“source.txt”));
E.    $handle = fopen(“target.txt”, “w+”); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents(“source.txt”)); fclose($handle);

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What is the recommended method of copying data between two opened files?

A.    copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B.    copy($destination_file, $source_file);
C.    stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D.    stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E.    stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following will set a 10 seconds read timeout for a stream?

A.    ini_set(“default_socket_timeout”, 10);
B.    stream_read_timeout($stream, 10);
C.    Specify the timeout as the 5th parameter to the fsockopen() function used to open a stream
D.    stream_set_timeout($stream, 10);
E.    None of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What function allows resizing of PHP’s file write buffer?

A.    ob_start()
B.    set_write_buffer()
C.    stream_set_write_buffer()
D.    Change the output_buffering INI setting via ini_set() function

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What does the __FILE__ constant contain?

A.    The filename of the current script.
B.    The full path to the current script.
C.    The URL of the request made.
D.    The path to the main script.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What can prevent PHP from being able to open a file on the hard drive (Choose 2)?

A.    File system permissions
B.    File is outside of open_basedir
C.    File is inside the /tmp directory.
D.    PHP is running in CGI mode.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
What purpose do namespaces fulfill?

A.    Encapsulation
B.    Alternative to classes
C.    Improved performance
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
When would you use classes and when would you use namespaces?

A.    Use classes to encapsulate code and represent objects, and namespaces to avoid symbol name collisions
B.    Use classes for performance-sensitive code, and namespaces when readability matters more
C.    Use namespaces for performance-sensitive code, and classes when readability matters more
D.    Always use them; namespaces are always superior to classes

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of these elements can be encapsulated by namespaces and made accessible from the outside?

A.    Only classes
B.    Classes, functions and constants
C.    Classes, functions, constants and variables

Answer: B

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Official 2014 Latest Zend 200-500 Demo Free Download(11-15)!

QUESTION 11
Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?

A.    (int)’t’;
B.    ord(‘t’);
C.    to_ascii(‘t’);
D.    chr(‘t’);

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?

A.    Cookie Data
B.    Session Data
C.    Remote IP Address
D.    User Agent

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type=”image” name=”myImage” src=”image.png” />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the mouse click?

A.    $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘y’]
B.    $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’]
C.    $_POST[‘myImage.x’] and $_POST[‘myImage.y’]
D.    $_POST[‘myImage_x’] and $_POST[‘myImage_y’]

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Interfaces can extend only one interface
B.    Interfaces can extend more than one interface
C.    Interfaces can inherit a method from different interfaces
D.    Interfaces can redeclare inherited methods

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should you use for this application?

A.    Adapter
B.    Factory
C.    MVC
D.    Singleton

Answer: B

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2014 Latest HP HP2-Z28 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
HP Intelligent Management Centers (IMC’s) Intelligent Configuration Center and Access Control List (ACL) Manager align with which FCAPS category?

A.    Performance
B.    Fault
C.    Accounting
D.    Configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to implement a network access control solution to ensure that only devices which meet company policies are allowed to access the network. Which HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC) modules should you recommend?

A.    Branch Intelligent Management System (BIMS) and Service Health Manager
B.    User Access Management (UAM) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
C.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
D.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Intelligent Analysis Reporter

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which switch series supports meshed stacking, a feature that is similar to Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)?

A.    HP 3500 Switch Series
B.    HP 3800 Switch Series
C.    HP 5400 21 Switch Series
D.    HP 5500 HI Switch Series

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://h30507.www3.hp.com/t5/HP-Networking/5-network-stacking-technology-benefits- Intelligent-Resilient/ba-p/122081#.UweFeUKSxHg

QUESTION 4
Which router would you recommend for a large campus that requires the highest performance?

A.    HP MSR930 Series
B.    HP MSR2000 Series
C.    HP HSR6600 Router Series
D.    HP HSR6800 Router Series

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/networking/products/routers/HP_HSR6800_Router_Series/ind ex.aspx

QUESTION 5
A company needs a data center network solution that isolates different departments’ traffic completely to maintain regulatory compliance. It also needs to save space and purchase as few physical switches as possible. Which HP FlexFabric switch technology meets these needs?

A.    HP Multitenant Device Context (MDC)
B.    HP Virtual Cloud Network (VCN)
C.    HP Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D.    HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx%2Fc03597043.pdf (page 73)
 

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Official 2014 Latest Cisco 010-151 Demo Free Download!

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Version: DEMO
 
QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

A.    KVM cable
B.    console cable
C.    Ethernet cable
D.    SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A.    on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C.    on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?

A.    Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B.    Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C.    Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D.    Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A.    Amber
B.    Red
C.    Blinking amber
D.    Blinking red

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A.    up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B.    up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C.    up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D.    two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B.    Virtual Ethernet Module
C.    Virtual Supervisor Module
D.    Virtual Memory Controller Module
E.    Virtual Network Module

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A.    Cisco Nexus 5548P
B.    Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C.    Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D.    Cisco Nexus 5596T

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?

A.    MDS 9513
B.    MDS 9509
C.    MDS 9506
D.    MDS 9250i

Answer: A

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clip_image001


Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-416 Dump Free Download(21-30)!

QUESTION 21
You have a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) publishing server named Server1. Some users connect to the network by using a cellular connection. You need to prevent the users from downloading App-V packages the first time they run the application that is associated to the package. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the App-V Streaming settings.
B.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the App-V Publishing settings.
C.    From each client computer, run the Set-AppvClientConfiguration cmdlet.
D.    From each client computer, run the Set-AppvClientPackage cmdlet.

Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop Question
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. You plan to use Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) 5.0 as an application virtualization platform. You have an application named App1. App1 requires a system restart during its installation. You install the App-V Sequencer on a client computer named CL1 that runs Windows 8. You need to sequence App1. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image002
Answer:

clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 23
You deploy several RemoteApp programs. You need to identify which file extensions on a client computer are associated with the RemoteApp programs. Which Control Panel item should you use? To answer, select the appropriate object in the answer area.

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Answer:

clip_image002[8]

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) deployment. The deployment contains three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

clip_image001
You publish multiple RemoteApp programs in a collection named Collection1. You need to ensure that users can view the RemoteApp programs published to them from the Start screen. What should you do?

A.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), set the default connection URL of RemoteApp and Desktop
Connections to https:// server2.contoso.com/rdweb/collection1.
B.    In the contoso.com zone, create a text (TXT) record that contains https://server3.contoso.com/rdweb/feed
in the Text field.
C.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), set the default connection URL of RemoteApp and Desktop Connections
to https://Server1.contoso.com/rdweb/feed.
D.    In the contoso.com zone, create a text (TXT) record that contains https://collection1.contoso.com/rdweb/feed
in the Text field.

Answer: A
In the real Exam you have to chose Server3 which adds a connection URL to the rdweb/feed
Explaination:
Webfeed has always to do with RDWA and TXT is only used when one wants to log on through email.

Continue reading


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QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain has Remote Desktop Services (RDS) deployed. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Licensing role service installed. You need to back up the Remote Desktop Licensing (RD Licensing) database. Which folder should you include in the backup? To answer, select the appropriate folder in the answer area.

clip_image001
Answer:

clip_image001[4]

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Remote Desktop Licensing role service installed. Server1 fails. You discover that all of the backups for Server1 are unavailable. You deploy a new server named Server2. You install the Remote Desktop Licensing role service on Server2. You need to rebuild the Remote Desktop Licensing (RD Licensing) database on Server2. Which tool should you use?

A.    Server Manager
B.    The Add-RDLicense cmdlet
C.    The RD Licensing Diagnoser
D.    Remote Desktop Licensing Manager

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Drag and Drop Question
Your network contains a main datacenter and a disaster recovery datacenter. The main datacenter contains a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI). The Hyper-V hosts run on a failover cluster. The virtual desktop infrastructure contains 50 personal virtual desktops that have custom settings. In the disaster recovery datacenter, you implement a Hyper-V failover cluster. You plan to implement a business continuity solution for the 50 personal virtual desktops. The virtual desktops must meet the following requirements:
Replicate to the Hyper-V cluster in the disaster recovery datacenter. Connect to the local network resources in the disaster recovery datacenter if a failover occurs.
Use application-consistent replicas.
You need to identify what must be implemented to meet the requirements of the planned deployment.
What should you identify?
To answer, drag the appropriate task to the correct requirement in the answer are a. Each task may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

clip_image002
Answer:

clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8. You plan to deploy two applications named App1 and App2 to the client computers. App2 is updated by the application manufacturer every month. You need to recommend an application distribution strategy for the applications. The solution must meet the following requirements:
The executable files of App1 must NOT be stored on the client computers. Users who run App2 must run the latest version of App2 only. What should you recommend using to deploy the applications?

A.    RemoteApp programs
B.    Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
C.    Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) in standalone mode
D.    A Group Policy software distribution package assigned to the computer accounts

Answer: A
Explanation:
*RemoteApp enables you to make programs that are accessed remotely through Remote Desktop Services appear as if they are running on the end user’s local computer. These programs are referred toas RemoteApp programs. Instead of being presented to the user in the desktop of the Remote Desktop Session Host (RD Session Host) server, the RemoteApp program is integrated with the client’s desktop. The RemoteApp program runs in its own resizable window, can be dragged between multiple monitors, and has its own entry in the taskbar. If a user is running more than one RemoteApp program on the same RD Session Host server, the RemoteApp program will share the same Remote Desktop Services session.
Incorrect:
Not B:
*The App-V clients may also be used in a “stand-alone” mode without either of the server infrastructures. In this case, the sequenced packages are delivered using an external technique, such as an Electronic Software Delivery system or manual deployment. *Microsoft Application Virtualization (MS App-V) platform allows applications to be deployed (“streamed”) in real-time to any client from a virtual application server. It removes the need for traditional local installation of the applications, although a standalone deployment method is also supported. With a streaming-based implementation, the App-V client needs to be installed on the client machines and application data that is stored on the virtual application server is installed (streamed) to the client cache on demand when it is first used, or pre-installed in a local cache.

QUESTION 15
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. The client computers are installed as virtual machines by using a VHD OS image named Image.vhdx. A line-of-business application named App1 is installed in Image.vhdx by using Microsoft Windows Installer. A new patch named Update.msp is available for App1. You need to ensure that all newly created virtual machines have the latest version of App1 installed. What should you do first? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    Assign Update.msp to the virtual machines by using a Group Policy object (GPO).
B.    Run dism.exe and specify the /online parameter.
C.    Configure a physical computer to start from Image.vhdx.
D.    Create a new virtual machine by using Image.vhdx.

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. You plan to deploy an application named App1 to 10 client computers. App1 only runs on Windows XP. You need to recommend an application deployment strategy for Appl. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), assign App1 to the 10 client computers.
B.    From a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) publishing server, publish App1 as an App- V package.
C.    From a Hyper-V host, install App1 on 10 virtual machines that are enabled for RemoteApp for Hyper.
D.    From a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) server, deploy App1 as a RemoteApp program.

Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Drag and Drop Question
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. You have a standard company image named Image.wim that contains a third-party application named Appl. Image.wim only contains one image. App1 uses a dynamic link library (DLL) file stored in C:\AppData. A new version of App1 named App2 is available. You need to update the DLL file in Image.wim. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image002[6]
Answer:

clip_image002[8]

QUESTION 18
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office is located in New York. The branch office is located in Toronto. The offices connect to each other by using a slow WAN link. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. All users have several third- party applications installed. The third-party applications are updated frequently by their manufacturers. You need to recommend an application management solution that meets the following requirements:
If the installation of an application update fails, the installation must restart automatically. Administrators must be able to generate reports that contain a list of all the failed installations of application updates.
Which application management solution should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    Deploy pooled virtual desktops by using a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI).
B.    Assign applications and updates by using Group Policy.
C.    Deploy packages by using Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
D.    Sequence applications by using Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) streaming.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 7. All of the client computers run a standard image of Windows 7. The network has Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) 6.0 deployed. The network contains three computers. The computers are configured as shown in the following table.

clip_image001[6]
You plan to upgrade all of the client computers to Windows 8. You need to identify whether an application named App1 can run on Windows 8. What should you deploy?

A.    An inventory-collector package to Client2
B.    An inventory-collector package to Client1
C.    A runtime-analysis package to Client1
D.    A runtime-analysis package to Client2

Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You need to recommend an application distribution strategy to meet the following requirements:
Enable client computers to use different versions of the same application. Minimize the amount of hardware resources used on the client computers. Which application distribution strategy should you recommend?

A.    Install the applications on Remote Desktop Services (RDS) servers, and then publish the applications
as RemoteApp programs.
B.    Create a Windows Installer package for each application, and then deploy the packages by using a
Group Policy object (GPO).
C.    Create a Windows Installer package for each application, and then deploy the packages by using
Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
D.    Sequence the applications by using the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) Sequencer, and
then deploy the applications by using App-V streaming.

Answer: D

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Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-416 Dump Free Download(1-10)!

QUESTION 1
Your company plans to implement a monitoring solution for application licenses. The corporate management policy states that all newly deployed technologies must be cloudbased. You need to recommend a license monitoring solution that meets the management policy. Which license monitoring solution should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.

A.    The Microsoft Asset Inventory Service (AIS)
B.    Asset Intelligence in Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
C.    The Microsoft License Statement tool
D.    The Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain has Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager deployed. You plan to implement Asset Intelligence reports by using Configuration Manager. You discover that the inventory data required for the Asset Intelligence reports is missing. You need to configure Configuration Manager to collect the inventory data required for the Asset Intelligence reports. What should you enable in the default settings of the client agent? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.

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Answer:

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QUESTION 3
You have a virtual infrastructure. The infrastructure contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and have Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) 5.0 installed. You sequence an application named App1, and then assign App1 by using a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. The manufacturer of App1 releases an update named Updateappl.msi. You need to deploy the updated version of App1 to all of the App-V 5.0 clients. The solution must ensure that all of the App-V 5.0 clients only run the updated version of Appl. What should you do?

A.    Create a new GPO, and then assign Updateapp1.msi.
B.    From the App-V Sequencer, sequence Updateappl.msi, and then create a new GPO.
C.    From the App-V Sequencer, update App1.appv, and then modify the GPO.
D.    Create a new GPO, and then publish Updateappl.msi.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. A network technician installs the Remote Desktop Session Host role service on Server1. The technician cannot manage Remote Desktop Services (RDS) by using Server Manager. You need to ensure that you can manage RDS by using Server Manager on Server1. What should you do first?

A.    Install the Remote Desktop Connection Broker role service.
B.    Run an RDS scenario-based installation.
C.    Add Server1 to the RDS Management Servers group.
D.    Install the Remote Desktop Services Tools feature-

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Drag and Drop Question
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. You need to deploy an application named App1 to Server1. The deployment must ensure that hundreds of Remote Desktop Services (RDS) clients can access Appl. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image001
Answer:

clip_image001[4]
Explanation:
Box 1: Run change.exe user /install To install an end-user application on an RD Session Host server, the RD Session Host server must first be switched into a special install mode called RD-Install to ensure that the application will be able to run in a multi-user environment.
Box 2: Install App1 on Server.
Box 3: Run change.exe user /execute After your applications have been installed on your RD Session Host server, you must switch the server back into execution mode (RD-Execute) before users can remotely connect to your server. You can switch between the install and execute modes from the command line using these commands:change user /installchange user /execute Reference: Technet, Learn How To Install Applications on an RD Session Host Server

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) infrastructure. The RDS infrastructure contains five servers that run Windows Server 2012. All client computers run Windows 8. You need to recommend a software delivery method to meet the following requirements:
Minimize the amount of hardware resources used on the client computers. Ensure that applications are launched by using document invocation.
What should you recommend?

A.    From an RDS server, publish RemoteApp programs.
From the client computers, create a Remote Desktop connection.
B.    From a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) publishing server, publish App-V packages, and then
modify the list of file type associations.
C.    From an RDS server, publish RemoteApp programs. From the client computers, create a new connection URL.
D.    From a Group Policy, assign applications to all of the client computers, and then run gpupdate.exe /force
on each client computer.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You deploy Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS). You plan to deploy several applications by using RemoteApp. Users will access the RemoteApp programs from domain-joined computers, home computers, and publicly accessible computers. The corporate security policy requires that all RemoteApp files be digitally signed. You need to recommend which certificate the company must use to digitally sign the RemoteApp files. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    A server authentication certificate from an internal certificate authority (CA)
B.    A server authentication certificate from a trusted third-party certification authority (CA)
C.    A self-signed code signing certificate
D.    A client authentication certificate from a trusted third-party certification authority (CA)

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
You deploy a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) collection. You plan to provide users with access to Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) applications by using Remote Desktop connections. You publish several applications to an App-V publishing server. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of storage space required on the RDS servers for the App-V applications. The solution must minimize the amount of time it takes for users to open the App-V applications. What four actions should you perform? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image002[6]
Answer:

clip_image002[8]

QUESTION 9
You plan to deploy a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) infrastructure. You need to recommend a configuration for the App-V management database. The solution must ensure that you can manage the App-V infrastructure if a server that has Microsoft SQL Server installed fails. What should you recommend implementing? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.

A.    Log shipping
B.    A SQL Server failover cluster
C.    Peer-to-peer replication
D.    Database mirroring

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your company plans to deploy a Microsoft Application Visualization (App-V) 5.0 infrastructure. You need to recommend a strategy to ensure that you can manage the App-V 5.0 infrastructure if a single management server fails. What should you include in the recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    Failover Clustering
B.    Database mirroring
C.    Network Load Balancing (NLB)
D.    DNS round robin

Answer: C

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QUESTION 8
What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?

A.    255 Bytes
B.    255 Characters
C.    512 Bytes
D.    512 Characters
E.    No Limit

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
} function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;

A.    2
B.    1
C.    0
D.    3
E.    No Output, PHP will generate an error message.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)

A.    Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B.    Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C.    Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D.    Recover from user errors

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?

A.    (int)’t’;
B.    ord(‘t’);
C.    to_ascii(‘t’);
D.    chr(‘t’);

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?

A.    Cookie Data
B.    Session Data
C.    Remote IP Address
D.    User Agent

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type=”image” name=”myImage” src=”image.png” />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the mouse click?

A.    $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘y’]
B.    $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’]
C.    $_POST[‘myImage.x’] and $_POST[‘myImage.y’]
D.    $_POST[‘myImage_x’] and $_POST[‘myImage_y’]

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Interfaces can extend only one interface
B.    Interfaces can extend more than one interface
C.    Interfaces can inherit a method from different interfaces
D.    Interfaces can redeclare inherited methods

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should you use for this application?

A.    Adapter
B.    Factory
C.    MVC
D.    Singleton

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3)

A.    A single function
B.    A single method from a class
C.    Multiple functions at once
D.    All methods from a class
E.    All classes defined in a script

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?

A.    getAttributeNS()
B.    getAttribute()
C.    hasAttribute()
D.    hasAttributeNS()

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?

A.    Class
B.    String
C.    Object
D.    Array

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
REST is a(n) …

A.    Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B.    Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C.    API to get information from social networking sites.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
echo 0x33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;

A.    33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B.    51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C.    monkeys sit on trees.
D.    0x33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function should be used for the best possible result?

A.    levenshtein()
B.    metaphone()
C.    similar_text()
D.    soundex()

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);

A.    Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B.    Error: Typehints cannot be references
C.    Result is NULL
D.    Result is object of type stdClass
E.    Result is 42

Answer: E

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