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Which Layer 2 mechanism should be used to authenticate wireless or wired users before allowing them access to network resources?

A.    802.1X
B.    MIMO
C.    802.1Z
D.    WPA

Answer: A

Which HP switch supports nine switches in an IRF topology?

A.    5120-SI
B.    9 5820
C.    7500
D.    12500

Answer: B

Which component of an HP Comware switch controls logging on to a syslog server?

A.    Log Parser
B.    Event Analyzer
C.    Information Center
D.    Event Log

Answer: A

What is the default username and password an administrator would use to log into a new HP MSM access point?

A.    username of “hp” and password of “hp”
B.    username of “msm” and password of “wireless”
C.    username of “admin” and password of “hp”
D.    username of “admin” and password of “admin”

Answer: D

Which Intelligent Management Center (IMC) group role allows an administrator to manage networking devices, but cannot add new IMC administrative users?

A.    Operator
B.    Administrator
C.    Manager
D.    Maintainer

Answer: D

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What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

A.    0000.5E00.01A3
B.    0007.B400.AE01
C.    0000.0C07.AC15
D.    0007.5E00.B301

Answer: C

In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?

A.    The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B.    All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C.    The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D.    The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.

Answer: A

Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?

A.    It monitors traffic flow and link utilization.
B.    It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group.
C.    It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links.
D.    It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks.

Answer: B

What is a global command?

A.    a command that is set once and affects the entire router
B.    a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
C.    a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
D.    a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status
E.    a command that can be entered in any configuration mode

Answer: A
When you enter global configuration mode and enter a command, it is applied to the running configuration file that is currently running in ram. The configuration of a global command affects the entire router. An example of a global command is one used for the hostname of the router.

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Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?

A.    It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number.
B.    It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.
C.    It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas.
D.    It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.

Answer: B

Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)

A.    MIB
B.    SNMP Manager
C.    SysLog Server
D.    SNMP Agent
E.    Set

Answer: ABD

What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?

A.    Flash
B.    The logging buffer .RAM
C.    The console terminal
D.    Other terminals
E.    Syslog server

Answer: BCE

Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose three)

A.    Emergencies
B.    Alerts
C.    Critical
D.    Errors
E.    Warnings

Answer: ABC

What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)

A.    Network, Application & User Monitoring
B.    Network Planning
C.    Security Analysis
D.    Accounting/Billing

Answer: ACD

Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?

A.    Netflow
B.    WCCP
C.    IP SLA
D.    SNMP

Answer: D

What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?

A.    IP address
B.    Interface name
C.    Port numbers
D.    L3 protocol type
E.    MAC address

Answer: ACD

What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?

A.    TRAP
C.    GET
D.    SET

Answer: AB

Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?

A.    Message Integrity
B.    Compression
C.    Authentication
D.    Encryption
E.    Error Detection

Answer: ACD

In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?

A.    AVF
B.    AVG
C.    Active Router
D.    Standby Router

Answer: B

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What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)

A.    source IP address
B.    source MAC address
C.    egress interface
D.    ingress interface
E.    destination IP address
F.    IP next-hop

Answer: ADE

What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.)

A.    CPU utilization
B.    where Netflow data will be sent
C.    number of devices exporting Netflow data
D.    port availability
E.    SNMP version
F.    WAN encapsulation

Answer: ABC

Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B.    It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C.    By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D.    The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E.    It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

Answer: AD

What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

A.    speed
B.    DTP negotiation settings
C.    trunk encapsulation
D.    duplex

Answer: B

What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)

A.    It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B.    It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C.    It removes the need for virtual links.
D.    It increases LSA response times.
E.    It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

Answer: BC

What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A.    It requires the use of ARP.
B.    It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C.    It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D.    It routes over links rather than over networks.

Answer: BD

When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?

A.    exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B.    exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C.    exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D.    loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

Answer: B

A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?

A.    the port-channel 1 interface
B.    the highest number member interface
C.    all member interfaces
D.    the lowest number member interface

Answer: A

What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network /24 to area 0?

A.    router ospf area 0
network area 0
B.    router ospf
C.    router ospf 1
network area 0
D.    router ospf area 0
network area 0
E.    router ospf
network area 0
F.    router ospf 1

Answer: C

What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?

A.    network area 0
B.    network area 0
C.    network area 0
D.    network all-interfaces area 0

Answer: A

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What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?

A.    service timestamps log datetime localtime
B.    service timestamps debug datetime msec
C.    service timestamps debug datetime localtime
D.    service timestamps log datetime msec

Answer: B

What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

A.    MIB
B.    agent
C.    set
D.    AES
E.    supervisor
F.    manager

Answer: ABF

What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

A.    MIB
B.    agent
C.    set
D.    AES
E.    supervisor
F.    manager

Answer: ABF

What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?

A.    response
B.    get
C.    trap
D.    capture

Answer: C

What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?

A.    HMAC-MD5
D.    community strings

Answer: D

Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)

A.    SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.
B.    SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C.    SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
D.    SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.
E.    SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
F.    SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.

Answer: ACE

What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)

A.    To identify applications causing congestion.
B.    To authorize user network access.
C.    To report and alert link up / down instances.
D.    To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E.    To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F.    To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service.

Answer: ADF

What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?

A.    flow monitor
B.    flow record
C.    flow sampler
D.    flow exporter

Answer: A

What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?

A.    SNMP
B.    Netflow
C.    WCCP
D.    IP SLA

Answer: B

What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?

A.    show ip flow export
B.    show ip flow top-talkers
C.    show ip cache flow
D.    show mls sampling
E.    show mls netflow ip

Answer: C

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Hotspot Question






Which will fix the issue and allow ONLY ping to work while keeping telnet disabled?

A.    Correctly assign an IP address to interface fa0/1.
B.    Change the ip access-group command on fa0/0 from “in* to “our.
C.    Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 115 in.
D.    Remove access-group 102 out from interface s0/0/0 and add access-group 114 in
E.    Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 104 in.

Answer: E
Let’s have a look at the access list 104:

The question does not ask about ftp traffic so we don’t care about the two first lines. The 3rd line denies all telnet traffic and the 4th line allows icmp traffic to be sent (ping). Remember that the access list 104 is applied on the inbound direction so the 5th line “access-list 104 deny icmp any any echo-reply” will not affect our icmp traffic because the “echo-reply” message will be sent over the outbound direction.

Hotspot Question






What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?

A.    Attempts to telnet to the router would fail.
B.    It would allow all traffic from the network.
C.    IP traffic would be passed through the interface but TCP and UDP traffic would not.
D.    Routing protocol updates for the network would not be accepted from the fa0/0 interface.

Answer: B
From the output of access-list 114: access-list 114 permit ip any we can easily understand that this access list allows all traffic (ip) from network

Hotspot Question






What would be the effect of Issuing the command ip access-group 115 in on the s0/0/1 interface?

A.    No host could connect to RouterC through s0/0/1.
B.    Telnet and ping would work but routing updates would fail.
C.    FTP, FTP-DATA, echo, and www would work but telnet would fail.
D.    Only traffic from the network would pass through the interface.

Answer: A
First let’s see what was configured on interface S0/0/1:


Lab Simulation Question – NAT-2
A network associate is configuring a router for the Weaver company to provide internet access. The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of – The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously. The hosts in the company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of –

The following have already been configured on the router:
The basic router configuration
The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside
The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will be a stub network, no routing protocol will be required.)
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”
The task is to complete the NAT configuration using all IP addresses assigned by the ISP to provide internet access for the hosts in the weaver LAN. Functionality can be tested by clicking on the host provided for testing.
Configuration information:
Router name    –    Weaver
Inside global addresses    – – /29
Inside local addresses    – – /28
Number of inside hosts    –    14
Step 1: Router Name
Router#configure terminal
Router(config)#hostname Weaver
Step 2: NAT Configuration
Weaver(config)#access-list 10 permit
Weaver(config)#ip nat pool  mynatpool netmask
Weaver(config)#ip nat inside source list 10 pool mynatpool overload
Step 3: Save Configuration
Weaver#copy run start
We can verify the answer by pinging the ISP IP Address ( from Host for testing.
Click “Host for testing”
In command prompt, type “ping”. If ping succeeded then the NAT is working properly.
Screen Shots:




In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

A.    the operation of VTP
B.    a method of VLAN trunking
C.    an approach to wireless LAN communication
D.    the process for root bridge selection
E.    VLAN pruning

Answer: B
A broadcast domain must sometimes exist on more than one switch in the network. To accomplish this, one switch must send frames to another switch and indicate which VLAN a particular frame belongs to. On Cisco switches, a trunk link is created to accomplish this VLAN identification. ISL and IEEE 802.1Q are different methods of putting a VLAN identifier in a Layer 2 frame. The IEEE 802.1Q protocol interconnects VLANs between multiple switches, routers, and servers. With 802.1Q, a network administrator can define a VLAN topology to span multiple physical devices.
Cisco switches support IEEE 802.1Q for FastEthernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. An 802.1Q trunk link provides VLAN identification by adding a 4-byte tag to an Ethernet Frame as it leaves a trunk port.

What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)

A.    GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B.    GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C.    GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D.    GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E.    GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F.    GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.

Answer: BDE

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)

A.    The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B.    The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C.    HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D.    The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on the same LAN.
E.    The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on the LAN.
F.    HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

Answer: ABF

Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
B.    The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
C.    A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space.
D.    There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages.
E.    Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
F.    A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.

Answer: CDF

A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)

A.    informational
B.    emergency
C.    warning
D.    critical
E.    debug
F.    error

Answer: BDF

What is the default Syslog facility level?

A.    local4
B.    local5
C.    local6
D.    local7

Answer: D

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Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A.    ipv6 local
B.    ipv6 host
C.    ipv6 unicast-routing
D.    ipv6 neighbor

Answer: C
to enable IPv6 routing on the Cisco router use the following command:
ipv6 unicast-routing
If this command is not recognized, your version of IOS does not support IPv6.

Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?

A.    Router# service password-encryption
B.    Router(config)# password-encryption
C.    Router(config)# service password-encryption
D.    Router# password-encryption

Answer: C
The “service password-encryption” command allows you to encrypt all passwords on your router so they can not be easily guessed from your running-config. This command uses a very weak
encryption because the router has to be very quickly decode the passwords for its operation.
It is meant to prevent someone from looking over your shoulder and seeing the password, that is all. This is configured in global configuration mode.

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?


Answer: B
A subnet mask of will allow for up to 6 hosts to reside in this network. A subnet mask of will allow for only 2 usable IP addresses, since we can not use the network or broadcast address.

Given an IP address with a subnet mask of, what is the correct network address?


Answer: A
For this example, the network range is –, the network address is and the broadcast IP address is

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address

A.    ::1
B.    ::
C.    2000::/3
D.    0::/10

Answer: A
In IPv6 the loopback address is written as,
This is a 128bit number, with the first 127 bits being ‘0’ and the 128th bit being ‘1’. It’s just a single address, so could also be written as ::1/128.

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?


Answer: D
Each subnet has 30 hosts < 32 = 25 so we need a subnet mask which has at least 5 bit 0s -> /27. Also the question requires the maximum number of subnets (which minimum the number of hosts- per-subnet) so /27 is the best choice -> .

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A.    Bandwidth
B.    Bandwidth and Delay
C.    Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D.    Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Answer: A
The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is Cost = 108 / Bandwidth

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)

A.    to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
B.    to reduce routing overhead
C.    to speed up convergence
D.    to confine network instability to single areas of the network
E.    to reduce the complexity of router configuration
F.    to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches

Answer: BCD
OSPF implements a two-tier hierarchical routing model that uses a core or backbone tier known as area zero (0). Attached to that backbone via area border routers (ABRs) are a number of secondary tier areas. The hierarchical approach is used to achieve the following:
Rapid convergence because of link and/or switch failures
Deterministic traffic recovery
Scalable and manageable routing hierarchy, reduced routing overhead.

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Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

A.    There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B.    A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C.    Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D.    The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E.    Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

Answer: BC
Leading zeros in IPv6 are optional do that 05C7 equals 5C7 and 0000 equals 0 -> D is not correct.

Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?

A.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

Answer: C
This question is to examine the layer 2 security configuration. In order to satisfy the requirements of this question, you should perform the following configurations in the interface mode:
First, configure the interface mode as the access mode Second, enable the port security and set the maximum number of connections to 1.

What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?

A.    global unicast
B.    anycast
C.    multicast
D.    unspecified address

Answer: B
IPv6 Anycast addresses are used for one-to-nearest communication, meaning an Anycast address is used by a device to send data to one specific recipient (interface) that is the closest out of a group of recipients (interfaces).

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?

A.    NIC
B.    BIA
C.    OUI
D.    VAI

Answer: C
An Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI) is a 24-bit number that uniquely identifies a vendor, manufacturer, or other organization globally or worldwide. They are used as the first 24 nits of the MAC address to uniquely identify a particular piece of equipment.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?


A. /21
B. /22
C. /23
D. /24

Answer: B
The subnet mask will include the,,, and networks, and only those four networks.

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

A.    A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals
from a router to a leased line.
B.    A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals
from a router to a leased line.
C.    A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals
from a router to a phone line.
D.    A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals
from a router to a phone line.

Answer: D
CSU/DSU is used to convert digital signals from a router to a network circuit such as a T1, while a modem is used to convert digital signals over a regular POTS line.

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)

A.    anycast
B.    broadcast
C.    multicast
D.    podcast
E.    allcast

Answer: AC
IPv6 addresses are classified by the primary addressing and routing methodologies common in networkinG. unicast addressing, anycast addressing, and multicast addressing.

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A.    Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B.    Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C.    Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D.    Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E.    An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F.    Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G.    Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Answer: BG
Since static routing is a manual process, it can be argued that it is more secure (and more prone to human errors) since the network administrator will need to make changes to the routing table directly. Also, in stub networks where there is only a single uplink connection, the load is reduced as stub routers just need a single static default route, instead of many routes that all have the same next hop IP address.

A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B.    The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C.    When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses,
up to the maximum defined.
D.    The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
E.    The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.

Answer: CD
Follow these guidelines when configuring port security:
+ Port security can only be configured on static access ports, trunk ports, or 802.1Q tunnel ports.
+ A secure port cannot be a dynamic access port.
+ A secure port cannot be a destination port for Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN). + A secure port cannot belong to a Fast EtherChannel or Gigabit EtherChannel port group. + You cannot configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses on a voice VLAN. + When you enable port security on an interface that is also configured with a voice VLAN, you must set the maximum allowed secure addresses on the port to at least two. + If any type of port security is enabled on the access VLAN, dynamic port security is automatically enabled on the voice VLAN.
+ When a voice VLAN is configured on a secure port that is also configured as a sticky secure port, all addresses seen on the voice VLAN are learned as dynamic secure addresses, and all addresses seen on the access VLAN (to which the port belongs) are learned as sticky secure addresses.
+ The switch does not support port security aging of sticky secure MAC addresses. + The protect and restrict options cannot be simultaneously enabled on an interface.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_19_ea1/config uration/guide/swtrafc.html

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    optional IPsec
B.    autoconfiguration
C.    no broadcasts
D.    complicated header
E.    plug-and-play
F.    checksums

Answer: BCE
An important feature of IPv6 is that it allows plug and play option to the network devices by allowing them to configure themselves independently. It is possible to plug a node into an IPv6 network without requiring any human intervention. This feature was critical to allow network connectivity to an increasing number of mobile devices. This is accomplished by autoconfiguration.
IPv6 does not implement traditional IP broadcast, i.e. the transmission of a packet to all hosts on the attached link using a special broadcast address, and therefore does not define broadcast addresses. In IPv6, the same result can be achieved by sending a packet to the link-local all nodes multicast group at address ff02::1, which is analogous to IPv4 multicast to address

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What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?

A.    show frame-relay pvc
B.    show frame-relay lmi
C.    show frame-relay map
D.    show frame relay end-to-end

Answer: C
Sample “show frame-relay map” output:
R1#sh frame mapSerial0/0 (up): ip dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), dynamic,broadcast,, status defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip dlci 403(0x193,0x6430), dynamic,broadcast,, status defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), static,CISCO, status defined, active

What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

A.    to map a known IP address to a MAC address
B.    to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
C.    to map a known MAC address to an IP address
D.    to map a known DLCI to an IP address
E.    to map a known IP address to a SPID
F.    to map a known SPID to a MAC address

Answer: D
Dynamic address mapping relies on the Frame Relay Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (Inverse ARP), defined by RFC 1293, to resolve a next hop network protocol (IP) address to a local DLCI value. The Frame Relay router sends out Inverse ARP requests on its Frame Relay PVC to discover the protocol address of the remote device connected to the Frame Relay network. The responses to the Inverse ARP requests are used to populate an address-to-DLCI mapping table on the Frame Relay router or access server. The router builds and maintains this address-to- DLCI mapping table, which contains all resolved Inverse ARP requests, including both dynamic and static mapping entries.

How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?

A.    by encrypting all passwords passing through the router
B.    by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
C.    by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
D.    by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges
E.    by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router

Answer: B
By using this command, all the (current and future) passwords are encrypted. This command is primarily useful for keeping unauthorized individuals from viewing your password in your configuration file

Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?


A.    VLANs have not been created yet.
B.    An IP address must be configured for the port.
C.    The port is currently configured for access mode.
D.    The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E.    The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.

Answer: C
According to the output shown the switchport (layer 2 Switching) is enabled and the port is in access mode. To make a trunk link the port should configured as a trunk port, not an access port, by using the following command: (Config-if)#switchport mode trunk

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

A.    the OSPF route
B.    the EIGRP route
C.    the RIPv2 route
D.    all three routes
E.    the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

Answer: B
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance. The Administrative Distances of popular routing protocols are listed below:


A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?

A.    service password-encryption
access-list 1 permit
line vty 0 4
password cisco
access-class 1
B.    enable password secret
line vty 0
password cisco
C.    service password-encryption
line vty 1
password cisco
D.    service password-encryption
line vty 0 4
password cisco

Answer: C
Only one VTY connection is allowed which is exactly what’s requested.
Incorrect answer: command.
line vty0 4
would enable all 5 vty connections.

What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

A.    Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B.    Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
C.    Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
D.    It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
E.    It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

Answer: E
Enable vty, console, AUX passwords are configured on the Cisco device. Use the show run command to show most passwords in clear text. If the service password-encryption is used, all the passwords are encrypted. As a result, the security of device access is improved.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?


A.    It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B.    It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C.    It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D.    It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the
virtual terminal ports.
E.    It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.

Answer: D
Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol which provides a secure remote access connection to network devices. Communication between the client and server is encrypted in both SSH version 1 and SSH version 2. If you want to prevent non-SSH connections, add the “transport input ssh” command under the lines to limit the router to SSH connections only. Straight (non-SSH) Telnets are refused.
Reference: www.cisco.com/warp/public/707/ssh.shtml

Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason that the interface status is “administratively down, line protocol down”?


A.    There is no encapsulation type configured.
B.    There is a mismatch in encapsulation types.
C.    The interface is not receiving any keepalives.
D.    The interface has been configured with the shutdown command.
E.    The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device.
F.    The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.

Answer: D
Interface can be enabled or disabled with shutdown/no shutdown command. If you interface is down, it will display administratively down status. You can bring up an interface having administratively down interface using no shutdown command.

Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?


A.    The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
B.    The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
C.    Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
D.    The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

Answer: B
To form an adjacency (become neighbor), router A & B must have the same Hello interval, Dead interval and AREA number.s

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A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?

A.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address
Main(config-if)# no shut
B.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut

Answer: B
With serial point to point links there are two options for the encapsulation. The default, HDLC, is Cisco proprietary and works only with other Cisco routers. The other option is PPP which is standards based and supported by all vendors.

What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)

A.    reduced cost
B.    better throughput
C.    broadband incompatibility
D.    increased security
E.    scalability
F.    reduced latency

Answer: ADE
IPsec offer a number of advantages over point to point WAN links, particularly when multiple locations are involved. These include reduced cost, increased security since all traffic is encrypted, and increased scalability as s single WAN link can be used to connect to all locations in a VPN, where as a point to point link would need to be provisioned to each location.

Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)

A.    the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B.    the value of the local DLCI
C.    the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D.    the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E.    the IP address of the local router

Answer: BD
Sample “show frame-relay map” output:
R1#sh frame mapSerial0/0 (up): ip dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), dynamic,broadcast,, status defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip dlci 403(0x193,0x6430), dynamic,broadcast,, status defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), static,CISCO, status defined, active

Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay link?

A.    show frame-relay lmi
B.    show frame-relay map
C.    show frame-relay pvc
D.    show interfaces serial

Answer: B
When connecting Cisco devices with non-Cisco devices, you must use IETF4 encapsulation on both devices. Check the encapsulation type on the Cisco device with the show frame-relay map exec command.

It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following procedures are required to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

A.    Remove the IP address from the physical interface.
B.    Encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP.
C.    Create the virtual interfaces with the interface command.
D.    Configure each subinterface with its own IP address.
E.    Disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks.
F.    Configure static Frame Relay map entries for each subinterface network.

Answer: ACD
For multiple PVC’s on a single interface, you must use subinterfaces, with each subinterface configured for each PVC. Each subinterface will then have its own IP address, and no IP address will be assigned to the main interface.

What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?

A.    All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B.    All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C.    All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D.    All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

Answer: D
Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the Frame Relay switch. Frames that are sent in excess of the CIR are marked as discard eligible (DE) which means they can be dropped if the congestion occurs within the Frame Relay network. Note: In the Frame Relay frame format, there is a bit called Discard eligible (DE) bit that is used to identify frames that are first to be dropped when the CIR is exceeded.

Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)

A.    CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B.    CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C.    CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D.    CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E.    CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F.    CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Answer: BC
CHAP is an authentication scheme used by Point to Point Protocol (PPP) servers to validate the identity of remote clients. CHAP periodically verifies the identity of the client by using a three-way handshake. This happens at the time of establishing the initial link (LCP), and may happen again at any time afterwards. The verification is based on a shared secret (such as the client user’s password).

rictly a Layer 2 protocol suite.

What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 202 broadcast command?

A.    defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B.    defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C.    defines the DLCI on which packets from the IP address are received
D.    defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the IP address

Answer: D
This command identifies the DLCI that should be used for all packets destined to the address. In this case, DLCI 202 should be used.

Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

A.    NCP
B.    ISDN
C.    SLIP
D.    LCP
E.    DLCI

Answer: D
The PPP Link Control Protocol (LCP) is documented in RFC 1661. LPC negotiates link and PPP parameters to dynamically configure the data link layer of a PPP connection. Common LCP options include the PPP MRU, the authentication protocol, compression of PPP header fields, callback, and multilink options.

What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)

A.    They create split-horizon issues.
B.    They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C.    They emulate leased lines.
D.    They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E.    They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.

Answer: BC
Subinterfaces are used for point to point frame relay connections, emulating virtual point to point leased lines. Each subinterface requires a unique IP address/subnet. Remember, you can not assign multiple interfaces in a router that belong to the same IP subnet.

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Refer to the exhibit. Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended?

A.    ACDB
B.    BADC
C.    DBAC
D.    CDBA

Answer: D
Routers go line by line through an access list until a match is found and then will not look any further, even if a more specific of better match is found later on in the access list. So, it it best to begin with the most specific entries first, in this cast the two hosts in line C and D. Then, include the subnet (B) and then finally the rest of the traffic (A).

The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?

A.    The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected
for more than five minutes.
B.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address
of the remote router.
C.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger
a call to the remote router.
D.    The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E.    The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Answer: D
The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses:
+ ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit data + INACTIVE: the connection from the local router to the switch is working, but the connection to the remote router is not available
+ DELETED: the PVC is not present and no LMI information is being received from the Frame Relay switch
+ STATIC: the Local Management Interface (LMI) mechanism on the interface is disabled (by using the “no keepalive” command). This status is rarely seen so it is ignored in some books.

Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?

A.    Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B.    Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C.    Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D.    Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap

Answer: B
This command tells the router to first use CHAP and then go to PAP if CHAP isn’t available.

Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?

A.    RSA
B.    L2TP
C.    IPsec
D.    PPTP

Answer: C
IPSec is a framework of open standards that provides data confidentiality, data integrity, and data authentication between participating peers at the IP layer. IPSec can be used to protect one or more data flows between IPSec peers.

At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

A.    Layer 2
B.    Layer 3
C.    Layer 4
D.    Layer 5

Answer: A
The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol datagrams over point-to-point links. PPP was originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for transporting IP traffic between two peers. It is a data link layer protocol (layer 2 in the OSI model )

The command frame-relay map ip 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?

A.    This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B.    The IP address is the local router port used to forward data.
C.    102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D.    This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E.    The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

Answer: E
Broadcast is added to the configurations of the frame relay, so the PVC supports broadcast, allowing the routing protocol updates that use the broadcast update mechanism to be forwarded across itself.

Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)

A.    PPP
B.    WAP
C.    DSL
D.    L2TPv3
E.    Ethernet

Answer: AC
The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol datagrams over point-to-point links. PPP was originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for transporting IP traffic between two peers. It is a data link layer protocol used for WAN connections.
DSL is also considered a WAN connection, as it can be used to connect networks, typically when used with VPN technology.

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?

A.    HDLC
B.    PPP
C.    X.25
D.    Frame Relay

Answer: B
PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols, including IP. PPP also has built-in security mechanisms, such as Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).

Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

A.    IETF
B.    ANSI Annex D
C.    Q9333-A Annex A
D.    HDLC

Answer: A
Cisco supports two Frame Relay encapsulation types: the Cisco encapsulation and the IETF Frame Relay encapsulation, which is in conformance with RFC 1490 and RFC 2427. The former is often used to connect two Cisco routers while the latter is used to connect a Cisco router to a non-Cisco router. You can test with your Cisco router when typing the command Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ? on a WAN link. Below is the output of this command (notice Cisco is the default encapsulation so it is not listed here, just press Enter to use it).

Note: Three LMI options are supported by Cisco routers are ansi, Cisco, and Q933a. They represent the ANSI Annex D, Cisco, and ITU Q933-A (Annex A) LMI types, respectively. HDLC is a WAN protocol same as Frame-Relay and PPP so it is not a Frame Relay encapsulation type.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown?


A.    The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
B.    The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router.
C.    The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of from a DHCP server.
D.    The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.
E.    The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address was learned through Inverse ARP.

Answer: E
Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (Inverse ARP) was developed to provide a mechanism for dynamic DLCI to Layer 3 address maps. Inverse ARP works much the same way Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) works on a LAN. However, with ARP, the device knows the Layer 3 IP address and needs to know the remote data link MAC address. With Inverse ARP, the router knows the Layer 2 address which is the DLCI, but needs to know the remote Layer 3 IP address. When using dynamic address mapping, Inverse ARP requests a next-hop protocol address for each active PVC. Once the requesting router receives an Inverse ARP response, it updates its DLCI-to-Layer 3 address mapping table. Dynamic address mapping is enabled by default for all protocols enabled on a physical interface. If the Frame Relay environment supports LMI autosensing and Inverse ARP, dynamic address mapping takes place automatically. Therefore, no static address mapping is required.

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When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?

A.    show ip access-lists
B.    show access-lists
C.    show interface
D.    show ip interface
E.    list ip interface

Answer: D
Incorrect answer:
show ip access-lists does not show interfaces affected by an ACL.

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?

A.    802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
B.    VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
C.    A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D.    VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Answer: C
A “native VLAN mismatch” error will appear by CDP if there is a native VLAN mismatch on an 802.1Q link. “VLAN mismatch” can cause traffic from one vlan to leak into another vlan.

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

A.    Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B.    Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C.    The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D.    A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Answer: A
Private RFC 1918 IP addresses are meant to be used by organizations locally within their own network only, and can not be used globally for Internet use.

Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three.)

A.    ping
B.    tracert
C.    ipconfig
D.    show ip route
E.    winipcfg
F.    show interfaces

Answer: ADF
Ping, show ip route, and show interfaces are all valid troubleshooting IOS commands. Tracert, ipconfig, and winipcfg are PC commands, not IOS.

In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?

A.    during high traffic periods
B.    after broken links are re-established
C.    when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D.    in an improperly implemented redundant topology
E.    when a dual ring topology is in use

Answer: D
If we connect two switches via 2 or more links and do not enable STP on these switches then a loop (which creates multiple copies of the same unicast frame) will occur. It is an example of an improperly implemented redundant topology.

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?

A.    The command is rejected.
B.    The port turns amber.
C.    The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
D.    The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Answer: C
The “switchport access vlan 3” will put that interface as belonging to VLAN 3 while also updated the VLAN database automatically to include VLAN 3.

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

A.    Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B.    Router# show ip eigrp topology
C.    Router# show ip eigrp interfaces
D.    Router# show ip eigrp neighbors

Answer: D
Below is an example of the show ip eigrp neighbors command. The retransmit interval (Smooth Round Trip Timer ?SRTT) and the queue counts (Q count, which shows the number of queued EIGRP packets) for the adjacent routers are listed:

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A.    learning
B.    listening
C.    discarding
D.    forwarding

Answer: C
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)


A.    Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B.    Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C.    Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D.    Ensure the switch has power.
E.    Reboot all of the devices.
F.    Reseat all cables.

Answer: BDF
The ports on the switch are not up indicating it is a layer 1 (physical) problem so we should check cable type, power and how they are plugged in.

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

A.    A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
B.    A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
C.    A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
D.    If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must
resolve the conflict.
E.    If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable
by the administrator.
F.    If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the
server is rebooted.

Answer: D
An address conflict occurs when two hosts use the same IP address. During address assignment, DHCP checks for conflicts using ping and gratuitous ARP. If a conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool. The address will not be assigned until the administrator resolves the conflict.

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Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?

A.    You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B.    You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C.    You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D.    You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.

Answer: C
We can have only 1 access list per protocol, per direction and per interface. It means:
+ We can not have 2 inbound access lists on an interface + We can have 1 inbound and 1 outbound access list on an interface

Which item represents the standard IP ACL?

A.    access-list 110 permit ip any any
B.    access-list 50 deny
C.    access list 101 deny tcp any host
D.    access-list 2500 deny tcp any host eq 22

Answer: B
The standard access lists are ranged from 1 to 99 and from 1300 to 1999 so only access list 50 is a standard access list.

A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks,,, and only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    access-list 10 permit ip
B.    access-list 10 permit ip
C.    access-list 10 permit ip
D.    access-list 10 permit ip
E.    access-list 10 permit ip
F.    access-list 10 permit ip

Answer: AC
access-list 10 permit ip will include the and subnets, while access-list 10 permit ip will include

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

A.    Administratively shut down the interface.
B.    Physically secure the interface.
C.    Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D.    Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E.    Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Answer: DE
It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces ->
We can not physically secure a virtual interface because it is “virtual” -> To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the “access-class” command. The “access-group” command is only used to apply an access list to a physical interface -> C is not correct.
The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username & password to prevent unauthorized login.

Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)

A.    SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
B.    SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
C.    SW1#show running-config
D.    SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
E.    SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

Answer: CD
We can verify whether port security has been configured by using the “show running-config” or “show port-security interface ” for more detail. An example of the output of “show port-security interface ” command is shown below:
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

A.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D.    Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address
are received.
E.    Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address
are received.

Answer: B
In the interface configuration mode, the command switchport port-security mac-address sticky enables sticky learning. When entering this command, the interface converts all the dynamic secure MAC addresses to sticky secure MAC addresses.

The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?

A.    Switch1(config)# line con0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
B.    Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address
C.    Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway
D.    Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# duplex full
Switch1(config-if)# speed 100
E.    Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Answer: C
Since we know hosts can reach the router through the switch, we know that connectivity, duplex. Speed, etc. are good. However, for the switch itself to reach networks outside the local one, the ip default-gateway command must be used.

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

A.    Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B.    Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C.    Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D.    Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Answer: D
A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a single physical interface.

A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network area 0

A.    The process id is configured improperly.
B.    The OSPF area is configured improperly.
C.    The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
D.    The network number is configured improperly.
E.    The AS is configured improperly.
F.    The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

Answer: C
When configuring OSPF, the mask used for the network statement is a wildcard mask similar to an access list. In this specific example, the correct syntax would have been “network area 0.”

Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?

A.    BackboneFast
B.    UplinkFast
C.    Root Guard
D.    BPDU Guard
E.    BPDU Filter

Answer: D
We only enable PortFast feature on access ports (ports connected to end stations). But if someone does not know he can accidentally plug that port to another switch and a loop may occur when BPDUs are being transmitted and received on these ports. With BPDU Guard, when a PortFast receives a BPDU, it will be shut down to prevent a loop.

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