Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-416 Dump Free Download(1-10)!

QUESTION 1
Your company plans to implement a monitoring solution for application licenses. The corporate management policy states that all newly deployed technologies must be cloudbased. You need to recommend a license monitoring solution that meets the management policy. Which license monitoring solution should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.

A.    The Microsoft Asset Inventory Service (AIS)
B.    Asset Intelligence in Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
C.    The Microsoft License Statement tool
D.    The Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain has Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager deployed. You plan to implement Asset Intelligence reports by using Configuration Manager. You discover that the inventory data required for the Asset Intelligence reports is missing. You need to configure Configuration Manager to collect the inventory data required for the Asset Intelligence reports. What should you enable in the default settings of the client agent? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.

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Answer:

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QUESTION 3
You have a virtual infrastructure. The infrastructure contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and have Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) 5.0 installed. You sequence an application named App1, and then assign App1 by using a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. The manufacturer of App1 releases an update named Updateappl.msi. You need to deploy the updated version of App1 to all of the App-V 5.0 clients. The solution must ensure that all of the App-V 5.0 clients only run the updated version of Appl. What should you do?

A.    Create a new GPO, and then assign Updateapp1.msi.
B.    From the App-V Sequencer, sequence Updateappl.msi, and then create a new GPO.
C.    From the App-V Sequencer, update App1.appv, and then modify the GPO.
D.    Create a new GPO, and then publish Updateappl.msi.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. A network technician installs the Remote Desktop Session Host role service on Server1. The technician cannot manage Remote Desktop Services (RDS) by using Server Manager. You need to ensure that you can manage RDS by using Server Manager on Server1. What should you do first?

A.    Install the Remote Desktop Connection Broker role service.
B.    Run an RDS scenario-based installation.
C.    Add Server1 to the RDS Management Servers group.
D.    Install the Remote Desktop Services Tools feature-

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Drag and Drop Question
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. You need to deploy an application named App1 to Server1. The deployment must ensure that hundreds of Remote Desktop Services (RDS) clients can access Appl. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image001
Answer:

clip_image001[4]
Explanation:
Box 1: Run change.exe user /install To install an end-user application on an RD Session Host server, the RD Session Host server must first be switched into a special install mode called RD-Install to ensure that the application will be able to run in a multi-user environment.
Box 2: Install App1 on Server.
Box 3: Run change.exe user /execute After your applications have been installed on your RD Session Host server, you must switch the server back into execution mode (RD-Execute) before users can remotely connect to your server. You can switch between the install and execute modes from the command line using these commands:change user /installchange user /execute Reference: Technet, Learn How To Install Applications on an RD Session Host Server

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) infrastructure. The RDS infrastructure contains five servers that run Windows Server 2012. All client computers run Windows 8. You need to recommend a software delivery method to meet the following requirements:
Minimize the amount of hardware resources used on the client computers. Ensure that applications are launched by using document invocation.
What should you recommend?

A.    From an RDS server, publish RemoteApp programs.
From the client computers, create a Remote Desktop connection.
B.    From a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) publishing server, publish App-V packages, and then
modify the list of file type associations.
C.    From an RDS server, publish RemoteApp programs. From the client computers, create a new connection URL.
D.    From a Group Policy, assign applications to all of the client computers, and then run gpupdate.exe /force
on each client computer.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You deploy Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS). You plan to deploy several applications by using RemoteApp. Users will access the RemoteApp programs from domain-joined computers, home computers, and publicly accessible computers. The corporate security policy requires that all RemoteApp files be digitally signed. You need to recommend which certificate the company must use to digitally sign the RemoteApp files. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    A server authentication certificate from an internal certificate authority (CA)
B.    A server authentication certificate from a trusted third-party certification authority (CA)
C.    A self-signed code signing certificate
D.    A client authentication certificate from a trusted third-party certification authority (CA)

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
You deploy a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) collection. You plan to provide users with access to Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) applications by using Remote Desktop connections. You publish several applications to an App-V publishing server. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of storage space required on the RDS servers for the App-V applications. The solution must minimize the amount of time it takes for users to open the App-V applications. What four actions should you perform? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image002[6]
Answer:

clip_image002[8]

QUESTION 9
You plan to deploy a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) infrastructure. You need to recommend a configuration for the App-V management database. The solution must ensure that you can manage the App-V infrastructure if a server that has Microsoft SQL Server installed fails. What should you recommend implementing? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.

A.    Log shipping
B.    A SQL Server failover cluster
C.    Peer-to-peer replication
D.    Database mirroring

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your company plans to deploy a Microsoft Application Visualization (App-V) 5.0 infrastructure. You need to recommend a strategy to ensure that you can manage the App-V 5.0 infrastructure if a single management server fails. What should you include in the recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    Failover Clustering
B.    Database mirroring
C.    Network Load Balancing (NLB)
D.    DNS round robin

Answer: C

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2014 Latest Zend 200-500 Demo Free Download!(8-15)

QUESTION 8
What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?

A.    255 Bytes
B.    255 Characters
C.    512 Bytes
D.    512 Characters
E.    No Limit

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
} function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;

A.    2
B.    1
C.    0
D.    3
E.    No Output, PHP will generate an error message.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)

A.    Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B.    Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C.    Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D.    Recover from user errors

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?

A.    (int)’t’;
B.    ord(‘t’);
C.    to_ascii(‘t’);
D.    chr(‘t’);

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?

A.    Cookie Data
B.    Session Data
C.    Remote IP Address
D.    User Agent

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type=”image” name=”myImage” src=”image.png” />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the mouse click?

A.    $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘y’]
B.    $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’]
C.    $_POST[‘myImage.x’] and $_POST[‘myImage.y’]
D.    $_POST[‘myImage_x’] and $_POST[‘myImage_y’]

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Interfaces can extend only one interface
B.    Interfaces can extend more than one interface
C.    Interfaces can inherit a method from different interfaces
D.    Interfaces can redeclare inherited methods

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should you use for this application?

A.    Adapter
B.    Factory
C.    MVC
D.    Singleton

Answer: B

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2014 Latest Zend 200-500 Demo Free Download!(1-7)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3)

A.    A single function
B.    A single method from a class
C.    Multiple functions at once
D.    All methods from a class
E.    All classes defined in a script

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?

A.    getAttributeNS()
B.    getAttribute()
C.    hasAttribute()
D.    hasAttributeNS()

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?

A.    Class
B.    String
C.    Object
D.    Array

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
REST is a(n) …

A.    Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B.    Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C.    API to get information from social networking sites.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
echo 0x33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;

A.    33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B.    51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C.    monkeys sit on trees.
D.    0x33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function should be used for the best possible result?

A.    levenshtein()
B.    metaphone()
C.    similar_text()
D.    soundex()

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);

A.    Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B.    Error: Typehints cannot be references
C.    Result is NULL
D.    Result is object of type stdClass
E.    Result is 42

Answer: E

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2014 Latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo Free Download(11-15)!

QUESTION 11
You use Microsoft Test Manager to test a solution. Which two statements about using test cases in Microsoft Test Manager are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    You can share steps between different test cases.
B.    You need to add all fields to a test case when you create the test case.
C.    You must define test cases by using Microsoft Test Manager.
D.    You can add attachments and hyperlinks to test cases.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/vstudio/dd380712(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Severitydescribes how much a defect affects an application. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Effect level
C.    Scope
D.    Priority

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You need to show the rolling average of the number of bugs that the testing team has opened, resolved, and closed.
Which report should you show?

A.    Bug trend
B.    Build quality indicators
C.    Bug status
D.    Burn rate

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug convergence is the point at which the number of bugs resolved exceeds the number of bugs found.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Baseline
C.    Burndown
D.    Code coverage

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How many test plans are created in projects that use an agile methodology?

A.    One master test plan and one test plan for each sprint
B.    One test plan for each sprint
C.    One master test plan
D.    Multiple test plans for each sprint

Answer: A

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2014 Latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo Free Download(1-10)!

QUESTION 1
When you log a bug, which two items should you include in the bug report to reproduce the bug? (Choose two.)

A.    The actions leading up to the bug
B.    The author of the code
C.    A description of the actual results
D.    The severity of bug

Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Hotspot Question
You run a load test in Microsoft Test Manager. You monitor performance counters by using the Load Test Analyzer. The following graphic displays representative data:

clip_image002
Use the drop-down lists to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

clip_image001

Answer:

clip_image001[4]

QUESTION 3
As part of a development team in a test-driven development environment, you are given the requirements for a new software system.
What should you do first?

A.    Implement the system in the code.
B.    Write a user story for the system.
C.    Run all existing test cases to validate they succeed.
D.    Write a test case for the new system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. In a use case diagram, the association between an actor and a use case can show a generalization at each end.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Alternative
C.    Multiplicity
D.    Subsystem boundary

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Fault tolerance is a redundancy technique that completely hides errors within a set of redundant modules.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Fault masking
C.    Exception handling
D.    Regression testing

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A system has the following requirement:
Patients should be sent to the Emergency Room if their respiratory rate is >= 20 and their age is >= 65.
How many test cases should you write to test all combinations of conditions?

A.    0
B.    2
C.    4
D.    9

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question
You create work items to test the features of an application. Match each work item type to its description. To answer, drag the appropriate work item type from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each work item type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.

clip_image002[4]
Answer:

clip_image001[6]

QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
Match each status to its test step. To answer, drag the appropriate status from the column on the left to its test step on the right. Each status may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.

clip_image002[6]

Answer:

clip_image001[8]

QUESTION 9
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug tracking is the process of assigning severity and priority to a reported bug. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Logging
C.    Resolution
D.    Triage

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Hotspot Question
You are asked to train an intern to create bug reports by using Team Foundation Server (TFS). You review the following bug report your intern created:

clip_image002[8]
When this bug occurs, the user cannot continue using the application. Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

clip_image001[10]
Answer:

clip_image001[12]

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2014 Latest HP HP2-Z30 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which Layer 2 mechanism should be used to authenticate wireless or wired users before allowing them access to network resources?

A.    802.1X
B.    MIMO
C.    802.1Z
D.    WPA

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which HP switch supports nine switches in an IRF topology?

A.    5120-SI
B.    9 5820
C.    7500
D.    12500

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which component of an HP Comware switch controls logging on to a syslog server?

A.    Log Parser
B.    Event Analyzer
C.    Information Center
D.    Event Log

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the default username and password an administrator would use to log into a new HP MSM access point?

A.    username of “hp” and password of “hp”
B.    username of “msm” and password of “wireless”
C.    username of “admin” and password of “hp”
D.    username of “admin” and password of “admin”

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Intelligent Management Center (IMC) group role allows an administrator to manage networking devices, but cannot add new IMC administrative users?

A.    Operator
B.    Administrator
C.    Manager
D.    Maintainer

Answer: D

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2014 Latest Cisco 200-120 Dump Free Download(201-204)!

QUESTION 201
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

A.    0000.5E00.01A3
B.    0007.B400.AE01
C.    0000.0C07.AC15
D.    0007.5E00.B301

Answer: C

QUESTION 309
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?

A.    The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B.    All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C.    The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D.    The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.

Answer: A

QUESTION 310
Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?

A.    It monitors traffic flow and link utilization.
B.    It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group.
C.    It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links.
D.    It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks.

Answer: B

QUESTION 204
What is a global command?

A.    a command that is set once and affects the entire router
B.    a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
C.    a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
D.    a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status
E.    a command that can be entered in any configuration mode

Answer: A
Explanation:
When you enter global configuration mode and enter a command, it is applied to the running configuration file that is currently running in ram. The configuration of a global command affects the entire router. An example of a global command is one used for the hostname of the router.

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2014 Latest Cisco 200-120 Dump Free Download(191-200)!

QUESTION 191
Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?

A.    It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number.
B.    It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.
C.    It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas.
D.    It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.

Answer: B

QUESTION 192
Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)

A.    MIB
B.    SNMP Manager
C.    SysLog Server
D.    SNMP Agent
E.    Set

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 193
What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?

A.    Flash
B.    The logging buffer .RAM
C.    The console terminal
D.    Other terminals
E.    Syslog server

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 194
Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose three)

A.    Emergencies
B.    Alerts
C.    Critical
D.    Errors
E.    Warnings

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 195
What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)

A.    Network, Application & User Monitoring
B.    Network Planning
C.    Security Analysis
D.    Accounting/Billing

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 196
Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?

A.    Netflow
B.    WCCP
C.    IP SLA
D.    SNMP

Answer: D

QUESTION 197
What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?

A.    IP address
B.    Interface name
C.    Port numbers
D.    L3 protocol type
E.    MAC address

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 198
What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?

A.    TRAP
B.    INFORM
C.    GET
D.    SET

Answer: AB

QUESTION 199
Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?

A.    Message Integrity
B.    Compression
C.    Authentication
D.    Encryption
E.    Error Detection

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 200
In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?

A.    AVF
B.    AVG
C.    Active Router
D.    Standby Router

Answer: B

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QUESTION 181
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)

A.    source IP address
B.    source MAC address
C.    egress interface
D.    ingress interface
E.    destination IP address
F.    IP next-hop

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 182
What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.)

A.    CPU utilization
B.    where Netflow data will be sent
C.    number of devices exporting Netflow data
D.    port availability
E.    SNMP version
F.    WAN encapsulation

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 183
Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B.    It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C.    By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D.    The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E.    It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 184
What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

A.    speed
B.    DTP negotiation settings
C.    trunk encapsulation
D.    duplex

Answer: B

QUESTION 185
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)

A.    It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B.    It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C.    It removes the need for virtual links.
D.    It increases LSA response times.
E.    It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 186
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A.    It requires the use of ARP.
B.    It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C.    It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D.    It routes over links rather than over networks.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 187
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?

A.    exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B.    exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C.    exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D.    loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

Answer: B

QUESTION 188
A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?

A.    the port-channel 1 interface
B.    the highest number member interface
C.    all member interfaces
D.    the lowest number member interface

Answer: A

QUESTION 189
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?

A.    router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
B.    router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
C.    router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
D.    router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
E.    router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
F.    router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

Answer: C

QUESTION 190
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?

A.    network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B.    network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C.    network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D.    network all-interfaces area 0

Answer: A

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QUESTION 171
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?

A.    service timestamps log datetime localtime
B.    service timestamps debug datetime msec
C.    service timestamps debug datetime localtime
D.    service timestamps log datetime msec

Answer: B

QUESTION 172
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

A.    MIB
B.    agent
C.    set
D.    AES
E.    supervisor
F.    manager

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 173
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

A.    MIB
B.    agent
C.    set
D.    AES
E.    supervisor
F.    manager

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 174
What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?

A.    response
B.    get
C.    trap
D.    capture

Answer: C

QUESTION 175
What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?

A.    HMAC-MD5
B.    HMAC-SHA
C.    CBC-DES
D.    community strings

Answer: D

QUESTION 176
Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)

A.    SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.
B.    SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C.    SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
D.    SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.
E.    SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
F.    SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 177
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)

A.    To identify applications causing congestion.
B.    To authorize user network access.
C.    To report and alert link up / down instances.
D.    To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E.    To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F.    To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service.

Answer: ADF

QUESTION 178
What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?

A.    flow monitor
B.    flow record
C.    flow sampler
D.    flow exporter

Answer: A

QUESTION 179
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?

A.    SNMP
B.    Netflow
C.    WCCP
D.    IP SLA

Answer: B

QUESTION 180
What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?

A.    show ip flow export
B.    show ip flow top-talkers
C.    show ip cache flow
D.    show mls sampling
E.    show mls netflow ip

Answer: C

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QUESTION 161
Hotspot Question

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Which will fix the issue and allow ONLY ping to work while keeping telnet disabled?

A.    Correctly assign an IP address to interface fa0/1.
B.    Change the ip access-group command on fa0/0 from “in* to “our.
C.    Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 115 in.
D.    Remove access-group 102 out from interface s0/0/0 and add access-group 114 in
E.    Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 104 in.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Let’s have a look at the access list 104:

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The question does not ask about ftp traffic so we don’t care about the two first lines. The 3rd line denies all telnet traffic and the 4th line allows icmp traffic to be sent (ping). Remember that the access list 104 is applied on the inbound direction so the 5th line “access-list 104 deny icmp any any echo-reply” will not affect our icmp traffic because the “echo-reply” message will be sent over the outbound direction.

QUESTION 162
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What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?

A.    Attempts to telnet to the router would fail.
B.    It would allow all traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network.
C.    IP traffic would be passed through the interface but TCP and UDP traffic would not.
D.    Routing protocol updates for the 10.4.4.0 network would not be accepted from the fa0/0 interface.

Answer: B
Explanation:
From the output of access-list 114: access-list 114 permit ip 10.4.4.0 0.0.0.255 any we can easily understand that this access list allows all traffic (ip) from 10.4.4.0/24 network

QUESTION 163
Hotspot Question

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What would be the effect of Issuing the command ip access-group 115 in on the s0/0/1 interface?

A.    No host could connect to RouterC through s0/0/1.
B.    Telnet and ping would work but routing updates would fail.
C.    FTP, FTP-DATA, echo, and www would work but telnet would fail.
D.    Only traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network would pass through the interface.

Answer: A
Explanation:
First let’s see what was configured on interface S0/0/1:

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QUESTION 164
Lab Simulation Question – NAT-2
A network associate is configuring a router for the Weaver company to provide internet access. The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.18.184.105 – 198.18.184.110. The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously. The hosts in the company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of 192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30.

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The following have already been configured on the router:
The basic router configuration
The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside
The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will be a stub network, no routing protocol will be required.)
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”
The task is to complete the NAT configuration using all IP addresses assigned by the ISP to provide internet access for the hosts in the weaver LAN. Functionality can be tested by clicking on the host provided for testing.
Configuration information:
Router name    –    Weaver
Inside global addresses    –    198.18.184.105 – 198.18.184.110 /29
Inside local addresses    –    192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30 /28
Number of inside hosts    –    14
Answer:
Step 1: Router Name
Router>enable
Router#configure terminal
Router(config)#hostname Weaver
Weaver(config)#
Step 2: NAT Configuration
Weaver(config)#access-list 10 permit 192.168.100.16 0.0.0.15
Weaver(config)#ip nat pool  mynatpool 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110 netmask 255.255.255.248
Weaver(config)#ip nat inside source list 10 pool mynatpool overload
Weaver(config)#end
Step 3: Save Configuration
Weaver#copy run start
Verification:
We can verify the answer by pinging the ISP IP Address (192.0.2.114) from Host for testing.
Click “Host for testing”
In command prompt, type “ping 192.0.2.114”. If ping succeeded then the NAT is working properly.
Screen Shots:

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QUESTION 165
In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

A.    the operation of VTP
B.    a method of VLAN trunking
C.    an approach to wireless LAN communication
D.    the process for root bridge selection
E.    VLAN pruning

Answer: B
Explanation:
A broadcast domain must sometimes exist on more than one switch in the network. To accomplish this, one switch must send frames to another switch and indicate which VLAN a particular frame belongs to. On Cisco switches, a trunk link is created to accomplish this VLAN identification. ISL and IEEE 802.1Q are different methods of putting a VLAN identifier in a Layer 2 frame. The IEEE 802.1Q protocol interconnects VLANs between multiple switches, routers, and servers. With 802.1Q, a network administrator can define a VLAN topology to span multiple physical devices.
Cisco switches support IEEE 802.1Q for FastEthernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. An 802.1Q trunk link provides VLAN identification by adding a 4-byte tag to an Ethernet Frame as it leaves a trunk port.

QUESTION 166
What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)

A.    GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B.    GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C.    GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D.    GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E.    GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F.    GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 167
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)

A.    The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B.    The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C.    HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D.    The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on the same LAN.
E.    The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on the LAN.
F.    HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 168
Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
B.    The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
C.    A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space.
D.    There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages.
E.    Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
F.    A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.

Answer: CDF

QUESTION 169
A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)

A.    informational
B.    emergency
C.    warning
D.    critical
E.    debug
F.    error

Answer: BDF

QUESTION 170
What is the default Syslog facility level?

A.    local4
B.    local5
C.    local6
D.    local7

Answer: D

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QUESTION 151
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QUESTION 152
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Answer:

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QUESTION 153
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QUESTION 154
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QUESTION 155
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QUESTION 156
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QUESTION 157
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QUESTION 158
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QUESTION 159
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QUESTION 160
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Answer:

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QUESTION 141
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A.    ipv6 local
B.    ipv6 host
C.    ipv6 unicast-routing
D.    ipv6 neighbor

Answer: C
Explanation:
to enable IPv6 routing on the Cisco router use the following command:
ipv6 unicast-routing
If this command is not recognized, your version of IOS does not support IPv6.

QUESTION 142
Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?

A.    Router# service password-encryption
B.    Router(config)# password-encryption
C.    Router(config)# service password-encryption
D.    Router# password-encryption

Answer: C
Explanation:
The “service password-encryption” command allows you to encrypt all passwords on your router so they can not be easily guessed from your running-config. This command uses a very weak
encryption because the router has to be very quickly decode the passwords for its operation.
It is meant to prevent someone from looking over your shoulder and seeing the password, that is all. This is configured in global configuration mode.

QUESTION 143
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

A.    192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B.    192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C.    192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D.    192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E.    192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

Answer: B
Explanation:
A subnet mask of 255.255.255.248 will allow for up to 6 hosts to reside in this network. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.252 will allow for only 2 usable IP addresses, since we can not use the network or broadcast address.

QUESTION 144
Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?

A.    172.16.16.0
B.    172.16.0.0
C.    172.16.24.0
D.    172.16.28.0

Answer: A
Explanation:
For this example, the network range is 172.16.16.1 – 172.16.31.254, the network address is 172.16.16.0 and the broadcast IP address is 172.16.31.255.

QUESTION 145
Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

A.    ::1
B.    ::
C.    2000::/3
D.    0::/10

Answer: A
Explanation:
In IPv6 the loopback address is written as,
This is a 128bit number, with the first 127 bits being ‘0’ and the 128th bit being ‘1’. It’s just a single address, so could also be written as ::1/128.

QUESTION 146
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?

A.    10.188.31.0/26
B.    10.188.31.0/25
C.    10.188.31.0/28
D.    10.188.31.0/27
E.    10.188.31.0/29

Answer: D
Explanation:
Each subnet has 30 hosts < 32 = 25 so we need a subnet mask which has at least 5 bit 0s -> /27. Also the question requires the maximum number of subnets (which minimum the number of hosts- per-subnet) so /27 is the best choice -> .

QUESTION 147
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A.    Bandwidth
B.    Bandwidth and Delay
C.    Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D.    Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Answer: A
Explanation:
The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is Cost = 108 / Bandwidth

QUESTION 148
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)

A.    to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
B.    to reduce routing overhead
C.    to speed up convergence
D.    to confine network instability to single areas of the network
E.    to reduce the complexity of router configuration
F.    to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
OSPF implements a two-tier hierarchical routing model that uses a core or backbone tier known as area zero (0). Attached to that backbone via area border routers (ABRs) are a number of secondary tier areas. The hierarchical approach is used to achieve the following:
Rapid convergence because of link and/or switch failures
Deterministic traffic recovery
Scalable and manageable routing hierarchy, reduced routing overhead.

QUESTION 149
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QUESTION 150
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QUESTION 131
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

A.    There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B.    A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C.    Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D.    The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E.    Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Leading zeros in IPv6 are optional do that 05C7 equals 5C7 and 0000 equals 0 -> D is not correct.

QUESTION 132
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?

A.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

Answer: C
Explanation:
This question is to examine the layer 2 security configuration. In order to satisfy the requirements of this question, you should perform the following configurations in the interface mode:
First, configure the interface mode as the access mode Second, enable the port security and set the maximum number of connections to 1.

QUESTION 133
What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?

A.    global unicast
B.    anycast
C.    multicast
D.    unspecified address

Answer: B
Explanation:
IPv6 Anycast addresses are used for one-to-nearest communication, meaning an Anycast address is used by a device to send data to one specific recipient (interface) that is the closest out of a group of recipients (interfaces).

QUESTION 134
What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?

A.    NIC
B.    BIA
C.    OUI
D.    VAI

Answer: C
Explanation:
An Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI) is a 24-bit number that uniquely identifies a vendor, manufacturer, or other organization globally or worldwide. They are used as the first 24 nits of the MAC address to uniquely identify a particular piece of equipment.

QUESTION 135
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

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A.    10.0.0.0 /21
B.    10.0.0.0 /22
C.    10.0.0.0 /23
D.    10.0.0.0 /24

Answer: B
Explanation:
The 10.0.0.0/22 subnet mask will include the 10.0.0.0, 10.0.1.0, 10.0.2.0, and 10.0.3.0 networks, and only those four networks.

QUESTION 136
What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

A.    A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals
from a router to a leased line.
B.    A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals
from a router to a leased line.
C.    A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals
from a router to a phone line.
D.    A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals
from a router to a phone line.

Answer: D
Explanation:
CSU/DSU is used to convert digital signals from a router to a network circuit such as a T1, while a modem is used to convert digital signals over a regular POTS line.

QUESTION 137
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)

A.    anycast
B.    broadcast
C.    multicast
D.    podcast
E.    allcast

Answer: AC
Explanation:
IPv6 addresses are classified by the primary addressing and routing methodologies common in networkinG. unicast addressing, anycast addressing, and multicast addressing.

QUESTION 138
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A.    Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B.    Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C.    Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D.    Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E.    An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F.    Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G.    Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Answer: BG
Explanation:
Since static routing is a manual process, it can be argued that it is more secure (and more prone to human errors) since the network administrator will need to make changes to the routing table directly. Also, in stub networks where there is only a single uplink connection, the load is reduced as stub routers just need a single static default route, instead of many routes that all have the same next hop IP address.

QUESTION 139
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B.    The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C.    When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses,
up to the maximum defined.
D.    The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
E.    The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Follow these guidelines when configuring port security:
+ Port security can only be configured on static access ports, trunk ports, or 802.1Q tunnel ports.
+ A secure port cannot be a dynamic access port.
+ A secure port cannot be a destination port for Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN). + A secure port cannot belong to a Fast EtherChannel or Gigabit EtherChannel port group. + You cannot configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses on a voice VLAN. + When you enable port security on an interface that is also configured with a voice VLAN, you must set the maximum allowed secure addresses on the port to at least two. + If any type of port security is enabled on the access VLAN, dynamic port security is automatically enabled on the voice VLAN.
+ When a voice VLAN is configured on a secure port that is also configured as a sticky secure port, all addresses seen on the voice VLAN are learned as dynamic secure addresses, and all addresses seen on the access VLAN (to which the port belongs) are learned as sticky secure addresses.
+ The switch does not support port security aging of sticky secure MAC addresses. + The protect and restrict options cannot be simultaneously enabled on an interface.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_19_ea1/config uration/guide/swtrafc.html

QUESTION 140
What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    optional IPsec
B.    autoconfiguration
C.    no broadcasts
D.    complicated header
E.    plug-and-play
F.    checksums

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
An important feature of IPv6 is that it allows plug and play option to the network devices by allowing them to configure themselves independently. It is possible to plug a node into an IPv6 network without requiring any human intervention. This feature was critical to allow network connectivity to an increasing number of mobile devices. This is accomplished by autoconfiguration.
IPv6 does not implement traditional IP broadcast, i.e. the transmission of a packet to all hosts on the attached link using a special broadcast address, and therefore does not define broadcast addresses. In IPv6, the same result can be achieved by sending a packet to the link-local all nodes multicast group at address ff02::1, which is analogous to IPv4 multicast to address 224.0.0.1.

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