Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-416 Dump Free Download(21-30)!

QUESTION 21
You have a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) publishing server named Server1. Some users connect to the network by using a cellular connection. You need to prevent the users from downloading App-V packages the first time they run the application that is associated to the package. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the App-V Streaming settings.
B.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the App-V Publishing settings.
C.    From each client computer, run the Set-AppvClientConfiguration cmdlet.
D.    From each client computer, run the Set-AppvClientPackage cmdlet.

Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop Question
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. You plan to use Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) 5.0 as an application virtualization platform. You have an application named App1. App1 requires a system restart during its installation. You install the App-V Sequencer on a client computer named CL1 that runs Windows 8. You need to sequence App1. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image002
Answer:

clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 23
You deploy several RemoteApp programs. You need to identify which file extensions on a client computer are associated with the RemoteApp programs. Which Control Panel item should you use? To answer, select the appropriate object in the answer area.

clip_image002[6]
Answer:

clip_image002[8]

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) deployment. The deployment contains three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

clip_image001
You publish multiple RemoteApp programs in a collection named Collection1. You need to ensure that users can view the RemoteApp programs published to them from the Start screen. What should you do?

A.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), set the default connection URL of RemoteApp and Desktop
Connections to https:// server2.contoso.com/rdweb/collection1.
B.    In the contoso.com zone, create a text (TXT) record that contains https://server3.contoso.com/rdweb/feed
in the Text field.
C.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), set the default connection URL of RemoteApp and Desktop Connections
to https://Server1.contoso.com/rdweb/feed.
D.    In the contoso.com zone, create a text (TXT) record that contains https://collection1.contoso.com/rdweb/feed
in the Text field.

Answer: A
In the real Exam you have to chose Server3 which adds a connection URL to the rdweb/feed
Explaination:
Webfeed has always to do with RDWA and TXT is only used when one wants to log on through email.

Continue reading


Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-416 Dump Free Download(11-20)!

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain has Remote Desktop Services (RDS) deployed. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Licensing role service installed. You need to back up the Remote Desktop Licensing (RD Licensing) database. Which folder should you include in the backup? To answer, select the appropriate folder in the answer area.

clip_image001
Answer:

clip_image001[4]

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Remote Desktop Licensing role service installed. Server1 fails. You discover that all of the backups for Server1 are unavailable. You deploy a new server named Server2. You install the Remote Desktop Licensing role service on Server2. You need to rebuild the Remote Desktop Licensing (RD Licensing) database on Server2. Which tool should you use?

A.    Server Manager
B.    The Add-RDLicense cmdlet
C.    The RD Licensing Diagnoser
D.    Remote Desktop Licensing Manager

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Drag and Drop Question
Your network contains a main datacenter and a disaster recovery datacenter. The main datacenter contains a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI). The Hyper-V hosts run on a failover cluster. The virtual desktop infrastructure contains 50 personal virtual desktops that have custom settings. In the disaster recovery datacenter, you implement a Hyper-V failover cluster. You plan to implement a business continuity solution for the 50 personal virtual desktops. The virtual desktops must meet the following requirements:
Replicate to the Hyper-V cluster in the disaster recovery datacenter. Connect to the local network resources in the disaster recovery datacenter if a failover occurs.
Use application-consistent replicas.
You need to identify what must be implemented to meet the requirements of the planned deployment.
What should you identify?
To answer, drag the appropriate task to the correct requirement in the answer are a. Each task may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

clip_image002
Answer:

clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8. You plan to deploy two applications named App1 and App2 to the client computers. App2 is updated by the application manufacturer every month. You need to recommend an application distribution strategy for the applications. The solution must meet the following requirements:
The executable files of App1 must NOT be stored on the client computers. Users who run App2 must run the latest version of App2 only. What should you recommend using to deploy the applications?

A.    RemoteApp programs
B.    Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
C.    Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) in standalone mode
D.    A Group Policy software distribution package assigned to the computer accounts

Answer: A
Explanation:
*RemoteApp enables you to make programs that are accessed remotely through Remote Desktop Services appear as if they are running on the end user’s local computer. These programs are referred toas RemoteApp programs. Instead of being presented to the user in the desktop of the Remote Desktop Session Host (RD Session Host) server, the RemoteApp program is integrated with the client’s desktop. The RemoteApp program runs in its own resizable window, can be dragged between multiple monitors, and has its own entry in the taskbar. If a user is running more than one RemoteApp program on the same RD Session Host server, the RemoteApp program will share the same Remote Desktop Services session.
Incorrect:
Not B:
*The App-V clients may also be used in a “stand-alone” mode without either of the server infrastructures. In this case, the sequenced packages are delivered using an external technique, such as an Electronic Software Delivery system or manual deployment. *Microsoft Application Virtualization (MS App-V) platform allows applications to be deployed (“streamed”) in real-time to any client from a virtual application server. It removes the need for traditional local installation of the applications, although a standalone deployment method is also supported. With a streaming-based implementation, the App-V client needs to be installed on the client machines and application data that is stored on the virtual application server is installed (streamed) to the client cache on demand when it is first used, or pre-installed in a local cache.

QUESTION 15
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. The client computers are installed as virtual machines by using a VHD OS image named Image.vhdx. A line-of-business application named App1 is installed in Image.vhdx by using Microsoft Windows Installer. A new patch named Update.msp is available for App1. You need to ensure that all newly created virtual machines have the latest version of App1 installed. What should you do first? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    Assign Update.msp to the virtual machines by using a Group Policy object (GPO).
B.    Run dism.exe and specify the /online parameter.
C.    Configure a physical computer to start from Image.vhdx.
D.    Create a new virtual machine by using Image.vhdx.

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. You plan to deploy an application named App1 to 10 client computers. App1 only runs on Windows XP. You need to recommend an application deployment strategy for Appl. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), assign App1 to the 10 client computers.
B.    From a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) publishing server, publish App1 as an App- V package.
C.    From a Hyper-V host, install App1 on 10 virtual machines that are enabled for RemoteApp for Hyper.
D.    From a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) server, deploy App1 as a RemoteApp program.

Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Drag and Drop Question
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. You have a standard company image named Image.wim that contains a third-party application named Appl. Image.wim only contains one image. App1 uses a dynamic link library (DLL) file stored in C:\AppData. A new version of App1 named App2 is available. You need to update the DLL file in Image.wim. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image002[6]
Answer:

clip_image002[8]

QUESTION 18
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office is located in New York. The branch office is located in Toronto. The offices connect to each other by using a slow WAN link. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. All users have several third- party applications installed. The third-party applications are updated frequently by their manufacturers. You need to recommend an application management solution that meets the following requirements:
If the installation of an application update fails, the installation must restart automatically. Administrators must be able to generate reports that contain a list of all the failed installations of application updates.
Which application management solution should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    Deploy pooled virtual desktops by using a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI).
B.    Assign applications and updates by using Group Policy.
C.    Deploy packages by using Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
D.    Sequence applications by using Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) streaming.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 7. All of the client computers run a standard image of Windows 7. The network has Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) 6.0 deployed. The network contains three computers. The computers are configured as shown in the following table.

clip_image001[6]
You plan to upgrade all of the client computers to Windows 8. You need to identify whether an application named App1 can run on Windows 8. What should you deploy?

A.    An inventory-collector package to Client2
B.    An inventory-collector package to Client1
C.    A runtime-analysis package to Client1
D.    A runtime-analysis package to Client2

Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You need to recommend an application distribution strategy to meet the following requirements:
Enable client computers to use different versions of the same application. Minimize the amount of hardware resources used on the client computers. Which application distribution strategy should you recommend?

A.    Install the applications on Remote Desktop Services (RDS) servers, and then publish the applications
as RemoteApp programs.
B.    Create a Windows Installer package for each application, and then deploy the packages by using a
Group Policy object (GPO).
C.    Create a Windows Installer package for each application, and then deploy the packages by using
Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
D.    Sequence the applications by using the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) Sequencer, and
then deploy the applications by using App-V streaming.

Answer: D

If you want to pass the Microsoft 70-416 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-416 Dump full version.


Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-416 Dump Free Download(1-10)!

QUESTION 1
Your company plans to implement a monitoring solution for application licenses. The corporate management policy states that all newly deployed technologies must be cloudbased. You need to recommend a license monitoring solution that meets the management policy. Which license monitoring solution should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.

A.    The Microsoft Asset Inventory Service (AIS)
B.    Asset Intelligence in Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
C.    The Microsoft License Statement tool
D.    The Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain has Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager deployed. You plan to implement Asset Intelligence reports by using Configuration Manager. You discover that the inventory data required for the Asset Intelligence reports is missing. You need to configure Configuration Manager to collect the inventory data required for the Asset Intelligence reports. What should you enable in the default settings of the client agent? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.

clip_image002
Answer:

clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 3
You have a virtual infrastructure. The infrastructure contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and have Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) 5.0 installed. You sequence an application named App1, and then assign App1 by using a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. The manufacturer of App1 releases an update named Updateappl.msi. You need to deploy the updated version of App1 to all of the App-V 5.0 clients. The solution must ensure that all of the App-V 5.0 clients only run the updated version of Appl. What should you do?

A.    Create a new GPO, and then assign Updateapp1.msi.
B.    From the App-V Sequencer, sequence Updateappl.msi, and then create a new GPO.
C.    From the App-V Sequencer, update App1.appv, and then modify the GPO.
D.    Create a new GPO, and then publish Updateappl.msi.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. A network technician installs the Remote Desktop Session Host role service on Server1. The technician cannot manage Remote Desktop Services (RDS) by using Server Manager. You need to ensure that you can manage RDS by using Server Manager on Server1. What should you do first?

A.    Install the Remote Desktop Connection Broker role service.
B.    Run an RDS scenario-based installation.
C.    Add Server1 to the RDS Management Servers group.
D.    Install the Remote Desktop Services Tools feature-

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Drag and Drop Question
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. You need to deploy an application named App1 to Server1. The deployment must ensure that hundreds of Remote Desktop Services (RDS) clients can access Appl. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image001
Answer:

clip_image001[4]
Explanation:
Box 1: Run change.exe user /install To install an end-user application on an RD Session Host server, the RD Session Host server must first be switched into a special install mode called RD-Install to ensure that the application will be able to run in a multi-user environment.
Box 2: Install App1 on Server.
Box 3: Run change.exe user /execute After your applications have been installed on your RD Session Host server, you must switch the server back into execution mode (RD-Execute) before users can remotely connect to your server. You can switch between the install and execute modes from the command line using these commands:change user /installchange user /execute Reference: Technet, Learn How To Install Applications on an RD Session Host Server

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) infrastructure. The RDS infrastructure contains five servers that run Windows Server 2012. All client computers run Windows 8. You need to recommend a software delivery method to meet the following requirements:
Minimize the amount of hardware resources used on the client computers. Ensure that applications are launched by using document invocation.
What should you recommend?

A.    From an RDS server, publish RemoteApp programs.
From the client computers, create a Remote Desktop connection.
B.    From a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) publishing server, publish App-V packages, and then
modify the list of file type associations.
C.    From an RDS server, publish RemoteApp programs. From the client computers, create a new connection URL.
D.    From a Group Policy, assign applications to all of the client computers, and then run gpupdate.exe /force
on each client computer.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You deploy Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS). You plan to deploy several applications by using RemoteApp. Users will access the RemoteApp programs from domain-joined computers, home computers, and publicly accessible computers. The corporate security policy requires that all RemoteApp files be digitally signed. You need to recommend which certificate the company must use to digitally sign the RemoteApp files. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    A server authentication certificate from an internal certificate authority (CA)
B.    A server authentication certificate from a trusted third-party certification authority (CA)
C.    A self-signed code signing certificate
D.    A client authentication certificate from a trusted third-party certification authority (CA)

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
You deploy a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) collection. You plan to provide users with access to Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) applications by using Remote Desktop connections. You publish several applications to an App-V publishing server. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of storage space required on the RDS servers for the App-V applications. The solution must minimize the amount of time it takes for users to open the App-V applications. What four actions should you perform? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image002[6]
Answer:

clip_image002[8]

QUESTION 9
You plan to deploy a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) infrastructure. You need to recommend a configuration for the App-V management database. The solution must ensure that you can manage the App-V infrastructure if a server that has Microsoft SQL Server installed fails. What should you recommend implementing? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.

A.    Log shipping
B.    A SQL Server failover cluster
C.    Peer-to-peer replication
D.    Database mirroring

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your company plans to deploy a Microsoft Application Visualization (App-V) 5.0 infrastructure. You need to recommend a strategy to ensure that you can manage the App-V 5.0 infrastructure if a single management server fails. What should you include in the recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    Failover Clustering
B.    Database mirroring
C.    Network Load Balancing (NLB)
D.    DNS round robin

Answer: C

If you want to pass the Microsoft 70-416 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-416 Dump full version.


2014 Latest Zend 200-500 Demo Free Download!(8-15)

QUESTION 8
What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?

A.    255 Bytes
B.    255 Characters
C.    512 Bytes
D.    512 Characters
E.    No Limit

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
} function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;

A.    2
B.    1
C.    0
D.    3
E.    No Output, PHP will generate an error message.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)

A.    Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B.    Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C.    Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D.    Recover from user errors

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?

A.    (int)’t’;
B.    ord(‘t’);
C.    to_ascii(‘t’);
D.    chr(‘t’);

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?

A.    Cookie Data
B.    Session Data
C.    Remote IP Address
D.    User Agent

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type=”image” name=”myImage” src=”image.png” />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the mouse click?

A.    $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘y’]
B.    $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’]
C.    $_POST[‘myImage.x’] and $_POST[‘myImage.y’]
D.    $_POST[‘myImage_x’] and $_POST[‘myImage_y’]

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Interfaces can extend only one interface
B.    Interfaces can extend more than one interface
C.    Interfaces can inherit a method from different interfaces
D.    Interfaces can redeclare inherited methods

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should you use for this application?

A.    Adapter
B.    Factory
C.    MVC
D.    Singleton

Answer: B

If you want to pass the Zend 200-500 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Zend200-500 Demo full version.


2014 Latest Zend 200-500 Demo Free Download!(1-7)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3)

A.    A single function
B.    A single method from a class
C.    Multiple functions at once
D.    All methods from a class
E.    All classes defined in a script

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?

A.    getAttributeNS()
B.    getAttribute()
C.    hasAttribute()
D.    hasAttributeNS()

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?

A.    Class
B.    String
C.    Object
D.    Array

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
REST is a(n) …

A.    Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B.    Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C.    API to get information from social networking sites.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
echo 0x33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;

A.    33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B.    51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C.    monkeys sit on trees.
D.    0x33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function should be used for the best possible result?

A.    levenshtein()
B.    metaphone()
C.    similar_text()
D.    soundex()

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);

A.    Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B.    Error: Typehints cannot be references
C.    Result is NULL
D.    Result is object of type stdClass
E.    Result is 42

Answer: E

If you want to pass the Zend 200-500 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Zend 200-500 Demo full version.


2014 Latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo Free Download(11-15)!

QUESTION 11
You use Microsoft Test Manager to test a solution. Which two statements about using test cases in Microsoft Test Manager are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    You can share steps between different test cases.
B.    You need to add all fields to a test case when you create the test case.
C.    You must define test cases by using Microsoft Test Manager.
D.    You can add attachments and hyperlinks to test cases.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/vstudio/dd380712(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Severitydescribes how much a defect affects an application. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Effect level
C.    Scope
D.    Priority

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You need to show the rolling average of the number of bugs that the testing team has opened, resolved, and closed.
Which report should you show?

A.    Bug trend
B.    Build quality indicators
C.    Bug status
D.    Burn rate

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug convergence is the point at which the number of bugs resolved exceeds the number of bugs found.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Baseline
C.    Burndown
D.    Code coverage

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How many test plans are created in projects that use an agile methodology?

A.    One master test plan and one test plan for each sprint
B.    One test plan for each sprint
C.    One master test plan
D.    Multiple test plans for each sprint

Answer: A

If you want to pass the Microsoft 98-379 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo full version.


2014 Latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo Free Download(1-10)!

QUESTION 1
When you log a bug, which two items should you include in the bug report to reproduce the bug? (Choose two.)

A.    The actions leading up to the bug
B.    The author of the code
C.    A description of the actual results
D.    The severity of bug

Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Hotspot Question
You run a load test in Microsoft Test Manager. You monitor performance counters by using the Load Test Analyzer. The following graphic displays representative data:

clip_image002
Use the drop-down lists to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

clip_image001

Answer:

clip_image001[4]

QUESTION 3
As part of a development team in a test-driven development environment, you are given the requirements for a new software system.
What should you do first?

A.    Implement the system in the code.
B.    Write a user story for the system.
C.    Run all existing test cases to validate they succeed.
D.    Write a test case for the new system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. In a use case diagram, the association between an actor and a use case can show a generalization at each end.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Alternative
C.    Multiplicity
D.    Subsystem boundary

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Fault tolerance is a redundancy technique that completely hides errors within a set of redundant modules.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Fault masking
C.    Exception handling
D.    Regression testing

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A system has the following requirement:
Patients should be sent to the Emergency Room if their respiratory rate is >= 20 and their age is >= 65.
How many test cases should you write to test all combinations of conditions?

A.    0
B.    2
C.    4
D.    9

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question
You create work items to test the features of an application. Match each work item type to its description. To answer, drag the appropriate work item type from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each work item type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.

clip_image002[4]
Answer:

clip_image001[6]

QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
Match each status to its test step. To answer, drag the appropriate status from the column on the left to its test step on the right. Each status may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.

clip_image002[6]

Answer:

clip_image001[8]

QUESTION 9
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug tracking is the process of assigning severity and priority to a reported bug. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Logging
C.    Resolution
D.    Triage

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Hotspot Question
You are asked to train an intern to create bug reports by using Team Foundation Server (TFS). You review the following bug report your intern created:

clip_image002[8]
When this bug occurs, the user cannot continue using the application. Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

clip_image001[10]
Answer:

clip_image001[12]

If you want to pass the Microsoft 98-379 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo full version.


2014 Latest HP HP2-Z30 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which Layer 2 mechanism should be used to authenticate wireless or wired users before allowing them access to network resources?

A.    802.1X
B.    MIMO
C.    802.1Z
D.    WPA

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which HP switch supports nine switches in an IRF topology?

A.    5120-SI
B.    9 5820
C.    7500
D.    12500

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which component of an HP Comware switch controls logging on to a syslog server?

A.    Log Parser
B.    Event Analyzer
C.    Information Center
D.    Event Log

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the default username and password an administrator would use to log into a new HP MSM access point?

A.    username of “hp” and password of “hp”
B.    username of “msm” and password of “wireless”
C.    username of “admin” and password of “hp”
D.    username of “admin” and password of “admin”

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Intelligent Management Center (IMC) group role allows an administrator to manage networking devices, but cannot add new IMC administrative users?

A.    Operator
B.    Administrator
C.    Manager
D.    Maintainer

Answer: D

If you want to pass the HP HP2-Z30 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest HP HP2-Z30 Demo full version.


2014 Latest Cisco 200-120 Dump Free Download(201-204)!

QUESTION 201
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

A.    0000.5E00.01A3
B.    0007.B400.AE01
C.    0000.0C07.AC15
D.    0007.5E00.B301

Answer: C

QUESTION 309
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?

A.    The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B.    All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C.    The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D.    The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.

Answer: A

QUESTION 310
Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?

A.    It monitors traffic flow and link utilization.
B.    It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group.
C.    It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links.
D.    It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks.

Answer: B

QUESTION 204
What is a global command?

A.    a command that is set once and affects the entire router
B.    a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
C.    a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
D.    a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status
E.    a command that can be entered in any configuration mode

Answer: A
Explanation:
When you enter global configuration mode and enter a command, it is applied to the running configuration file that is currently running in ram. The configuration of a global command affects the entire router. An example of a global command is one used for the hostname of the router.

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-120 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latestCisco 200-120 Dum full version.


2014 Latest Cisco 200-120 Dump Free Download(191-200)!

QUESTION 191
Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?

A.    It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number.
B.    It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.
C.    It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas.
D.    It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.

Answer: B

QUESTION 192
Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)

A.    MIB
B.    SNMP Manager
C.    SysLog Server
D.    SNMP Agent
E.    Set

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 193
What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?

A.    Flash
B.    The logging buffer .RAM
C.    The console terminal
D.    Other terminals
E.    Syslog server

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 194
Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose three)

A.    Emergencies
B.    Alerts
C.    Critical
D.    Errors
E.    Warnings

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 195
What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)

A.    Network, Application & User Monitoring
B.    Network Planning
C.    Security Analysis
D.    Accounting/Billing

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 196
Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?

A.    Netflow
B.    WCCP
C.    IP SLA
D.    SNMP

Answer: D

QUESTION 197
What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?

A.    IP address
B.    Interface name
C.    Port numbers
D.    L3 protocol type
E.    MAC address

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 198
What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?

A.    TRAP
B.    INFORM
C.    GET
D.    SET

Answer: AB

QUESTION 199
Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?

A.    Message Integrity
B.    Compression
C.    Authentication
D.    Encryption
E.    Error Detection

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 200
In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?

A.    AVF
B.    AVG
C.    Active Router
D.    Standby Router

Answer: B

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-120 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latestCisco 200-120 Dum full version.


2014 Latest Cisco 200-120 Dump Free Download(181-190)!

QUESTION 181
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)

A.    source IP address
B.    source MAC address
C.    egress interface
D.    ingress interface
E.    destination IP address
F.    IP next-hop

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 182
What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.)

A.    CPU utilization
B.    where Netflow data will be sent
C.    number of devices exporting Netflow data
D.    port availability
E.    SNMP version
F.    WAN encapsulation

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 183
Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B.    It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C.    By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D.    The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E.    It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 184
What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

A.    speed
B.    DTP negotiation settings
C.    trunk encapsulation
D.    duplex

Answer: B

QUESTION 185
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)

A.    It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B.    It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C.    It removes the need for virtual links.
D.    It increases LSA response times.
E.    It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 186
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A.    It requires the use of ARP.
B.    It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C.    It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D.    It routes over links rather than over networks.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 187
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?

A.    exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B.    exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C.    exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D.    loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

Answer: B

QUESTION 188
A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?

A.    the port-channel 1 interface
B.    the highest number member interface
C.    all member interfaces
D.    the lowest number member interface

Answer: A

QUESTION 189
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?

A.    router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
B.    router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
C.    router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
D.    router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
E.    router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
F.    router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

Answer: C

QUESTION 190
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?

A.    network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B.    network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C.    network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D.    network all-interfaces area 0

Answer: A

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-120 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latestCisco 200-120 Dum full version.


2014 Latest Cisco 200-120 Dump Free Download(171-180)!

QUESTION 171
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?

A.    service timestamps log datetime localtime
B.    service timestamps debug datetime msec
C.    service timestamps debug datetime localtime
D.    service timestamps log datetime msec

Answer: B

QUESTION 172
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

A.    MIB
B.    agent
C.    set
D.    AES
E.    supervisor
F.    manager

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 173
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

A.    MIB
B.    agent
C.    set
D.    AES
E.    supervisor
F.    manager

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 174
What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?

A.    response
B.    get
C.    trap
D.    capture

Answer: C

QUESTION 175
What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?

A.    HMAC-MD5
B.    HMAC-SHA
C.    CBC-DES
D.    community strings

Answer: D

QUESTION 176
Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)

A.    SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.
B.    SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C.    SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
D.    SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.
E.    SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
F.    SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 177
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)

A.    To identify applications causing congestion.
B.    To authorize user network access.
C.    To report and alert link up / down instances.
D.    To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E.    To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F.    To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service.

Answer: ADF

QUESTION 178
What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?

A.    flow monitor
B.    flow record
C.    flow sampler
D.    flow exporter

Answer: A

QUESTION 179
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?

A.    SNMP
B.    Netflow
C.    WCCP
D.    IP SLA

Answer: B

QUESTION 180
What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?

A.    show ip flow export
B.    show ip flow top-talkers
C.    show ip cache flow
D.    show mls sampling
E.    show mls netflow ip

Answer: C

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-120 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latestCisco 200-120 Dum full version.


2014 Latest Cisco 200-120 Dump Free Download(161-170)!

QUESTION 161
Hotspot Question

clip_image001

clip_image001[4]

clip_image001[6]

clip_image001[8]

clip_image001[10]

clip_image001[12]
Which will fix the issue and allow ONLY ping to work while keeping telnet disabled?

A.    Correctly assign an IP address to interface fa0/1.
B.    Change the ip access-group command on fa0/0 from “in* to “our.
C.    Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 115 in.
D.    Remove access-group 102 out from interface s0/0/0 and add access-group 114 in
E.    Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 104 in.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Let’s have a look at the access list 104:

clip_image001[14]
The question does not ask about ftp traffic so we don’t care about the two first lines. The 3rd line denies all telnet traffic and the 4th line allows icmp traffic to be sent (ping). Remember that the access list 104 is applied on the inbound direction so the 5th line “access-list 104 deny icmp any any echo-reply” will not affect our icmp traffic because the “echo-reply” message will be sent over the outbound direction.

QUESTION 162
Hotspot Question

clip_image001[16]

clip_image001[18]

clip_image001[20]

clip_image001[22]

clip_image001[24]

clip_image001[26]
What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?

A.    Attempts to telnet to the router would fail.
B.    It would allow all traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network.
C.    IP traffic would be passed through the interface but TCP and UDP traffic would not.
D.    Routing protocol updates for the 10.4.4.0 network would not be accepted from the fa0/0 interface.

Answer: B
Explanation:
From the output of access-list 114: access-list 114 permit ip 10.4.4.0 0.0.0.255 any we can easily understand that this access list allows all traffic (ip) from 10.4.4.0/24 network

QUESTION 163
Hotspot Question

clip_image001[28]

clip_image001[30]

clip_image001[32]

clip_image001[34]

clip_image001[36]

clip_image001[38]
What would be the effect of Issuing the command ip access-group 115 in on the s0/0/1 interface?

A.    No host could connect to RouterC through s0/0/1.
B.    Telnet and ping would work but routing updates would fail.
C.    FTP, FTP-DATA, echo, and www would work but telnet would fail.
D.    Only traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network would pass through the interface.

Answer: A
Explanation:
First let’s see what was configured on interface S0/0/1:

clip_image001[40]

QUESTION 164
Lab Simulation Question – NAT-2
A network associate is configuring a router for the Weaver company to provide internet access. The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.18.184.105 – 198.18.184.110. The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously. The hosts in the company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of 192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30.

clip_image001[42]
The following have already been configured on the router:
The basic router configuration
The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside
The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will be a stub network, no routing protocol will be required.)
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”
The task is to complete the NAT configuration using all IP addresses assigned by the ISP to provide internet access for the hosts in the weaver LAN. Functionality can be tested by clicking on the host provided for testing.
Configuration information:
Router name    –    Weaver
Inside global addresses    –    198.18.184.105 – 198.18.184.110 /29
Inside local addresses    –    192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30 /28
Number of inside hosts    –    14
Answer:
Step 1: Router Name
Router>enable
Router#configure terminal
Router(config)#hostname Weaver
Weaver(config)#
Step 2: NAT Configuration
Weaver(config)#access-list 10 permit 192.168.100.16 0.0.0.15
Weaver(config)#ip nat pool  mynatpool 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110 netmask 255.255.255.248
Weaver(config)#ip nat inside source list 10 pool mynatpool overload
Weaver(config)#end
Step 3: Save Configuration
Weaver#copy run start
Verification:
We can verify the answer by pinging the ISP IP Address (192.0.2.114) from Host for testing.
Click “Host for testing”
In command prompt, type “ping 192.0.2.114”. If ping succeeded then the NAT is working properly.
Screen Shots:

clip_image002

clip_image002[4]

clip_image002[6]

QUESTION 165
In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

A.    the operation of VTP
B.    a method of VLAN trunking
C.    an approach to wireless LAN communication
D.    the process for root bridge selection
E.    VLAN pruning

Answer: B
Explanation:
A broadcast domain must sometimes exist on more than one switch in the network. To accomplish this, one switch must send frames to another switch and indicate which VLAN a particular frame belongs to. On Cisco switches, a trunk link is created to accomplish this VLAN identification. ISL and IEEE 802.1Q are different methods of putting a VLAN identifier in a Layer 2 frame. The IEEE 802.1Q protocol interconnects VLANs between multiple switches, routers, and servers. With 802.1Q, a network administrator can define a VLAN topology to span multiple physical devices.
Cisco switches support IEEE 802.1Q for FastEthernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. An 802.1Q trunk link provides VLAN identification by adding a 4-byte tag to an Ethernet Frame as it leaves a trunk port.

QUESTION 166
What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)

A.    GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B.    GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C.    GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D.    GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E.    GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F.    GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 167
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)

A.    The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B.    The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C.    HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D.    The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on the same LAN.
E.    The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on the LAN.
F.    HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 168
Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
B.    The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
C.    A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space.
D.    There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages.
E.    Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
F.    A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.

Answer: CDF

QUESTION 169
A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)

A.    informational
B.    emergency
C.    warning
D.    critical
E.    debug
F.    error

Answer: BDF

QUESTION 170
What is the default Syslog facility level?

A.    local4
B.    local5
C.    local6
D.    local7

Answer: D

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-120 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latestCisco 200-120 Dum full version.


2014 Latest Cisco 200-120 Dump Free Download(151-160)!

QUESTION 151
Drag and Drop Question

clip_image002
Answer:

clip_image001

QUESTION 152
Drag and Drop Question

clip_image002[4]
Answer:

clip_image001[4]

QUESTION 153
Drag and Drop Question

clip_image002[6]
Answer:

clip_image001[6]

QUESTION 154
Drag and Drop Question

clip_image002[8]
Answer:

clip_image001[8]

QUESTION 155
Drag and Drop Question

clip_image002[10]
Answer:

clip_image001[10]

QUESTION 156
Drag and Drop Question

clip_image002[12]
Answer:

clip_image001[12]

QUESTION 157
Drag and Drop Question

clip_image002[14]
Answer:

clip_image001[14]

QUESTION 158
Drag and Drop Question

clip_image002[16]
Answer:

clip_image002[18]

QUESTION 159
Drag and Drop Question

clip_image002[20]
Answer:

clip_image002[22]

QUESTION 160
Drag and Drop Question

clip_image002[24]
Answer:

clip_image002[26]

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-120 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latestCisco 200-120 Dum full version.


Pages: 1 2 ... 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365