Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-680 Exam Dump Free Download(1-10)

QUESTION 1
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer has System Protection enabled. You need to retain only the last System Protection snapshot of the computer. All other snapshots must be deleted. What should you do?

A.    Run Disk Cleanup for Programs and features.
B.    Run Disk Cleanup for System Restore and Shadow Copies.
C.    From the System Protection Restore settings, select Turn off System Restore.
D.    From the System Protection Restore settings, select Only restore previous versions of files.

Answer: B
Explanation:
 clip_image001
Shadow info:
Shadow copies are automatically saved as part of a restore point. If system protection is enabled, Windows 7 automatically creates shadow copies of files that have been modified since the last restore point was created. By default, new restore points are created every seven days or whenever a significant system change (such as a driver or application installation) occurs.

QUESTION 2
You have a reference computer that runs Windows 7. You plan to deploy an image of the computer. You create an answer file named answer.xml. You need to ensure that the installation applies the answer file after you deploy the image. Which command should you run before you capture the image?

A.    Imagex.exe /append answer.xml /check.
B.    Imagex.exe /mount answer.xml /verify.
C.    Sysprep.exe /reboot /audit /unattend:answer.xml.
D.    Sysprep.exe /generalize /oobe /unattend:answer.xml.

Answer: D
Explanation:
To prepare the reference computer for the user, you use the Sysprep utility with the /generalize option to remove hardware-specific information from the Windows installation and the /oobe option to configure the computer to boot to Windows Welcome upon the next restart. Open an elevated command prompt on the reference computer and run the following command: c:\windows\system32\sysprep\sysprep.exe /oobe /generalize /shutdown Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computer-specific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.

QUESTION 3
You have a computer that runs Windows Vista Service Pack 2 (SP2). You need to upgrade the computer to Windows 7. What should you do?

A.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Upgrade option.
B.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Custom (advanced) option.
C.    From Windows Vista, run Setup.exe from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Upgrade option.
D.    From Windows Vista, run Setup.exe from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Custom option.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Upgrading Windows Vista to Windows 7 instructionsAccess the Windows 7 installation source and double-click Setup.exe. When prompted by User Account Control, click Allow. This loads the Install Windows page. Click Install Now.Other NotesYou can upgrade computers running Windows Vista to Windows 7. When you upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7, all documents, settings, applications, and user accounts that existed on the computer running Windows Vista are available when the upgrade is finished. The advantage to an upgrade is that it allows you to keep the current application configuration. When you perform a migration, you need to reinstall the user’s applications on the new computer. As mentioned previously, this can be problematic in organizations that are not careful about keeping track of which specific set of applications are installed on each user’s computer. Prior to attempting to perform the upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7, you should run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor. The Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is an application that you can download from Microsoft’s Web site that will inform you if Windows 7 supports a computer running the current hardware and software configuration of Windows Vista. Prior to running the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor, you should ensure that all hardware that you want to use with Windows 7, such as printers, scanners, and cameras, are connected to the computer. The Upgrade Advisor generates a report that informs you of which applications and devices are known to have problems with Windows
7. A similar compatibility report is generated during the upgrade process, but the version created by the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is more likely to be up to date.

QUESTION 4
You plan to deploy Windows 7 to 100 computers on your corporate network.
You install Windows 7 on a computer. You and need to prepare the computer to be imaged. What should you do before you create the image of the computer?

A.    At the command prompt, run the Dism command.
B.    At the command prompt, run the Sysprep command.
C.    Start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run the ImageX
command.
D.    Start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run the Wpeutil
command.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Sysprep
Sysprep is a tool designed for corporate system administrators, OEMs, and others who need to deploy the Windows?XP operating system on multiple computers. After performing the initial setup steps on a single system, you can run Sysprep to prepare the sample computer for cloning. Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computer-specific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.NOT ImagexImageX is a command- line tool that enables original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) and corporations to capture, to modify, and to apply file-based disk images for rapid deployment. ImageX works with Windows image (.wim) files for copying to a network, or it can work with other technologies that use .wim images, such as Windows Setup, Windows Deployment Services (Windows DS), and the System Management Server (SMS) Operating System Feature Deployment Pack.NOT DismDeployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) is a command-line tool used to service Windows?images offline before deployment. You can use it to install, uninstall, configure, and update Windows features, packages, drivers, and international settings. Subsets of the DISM servicing commands are also available for servicing a running operating systemNOT WpeutilThe Windows PE utility (Wpeutil) is a command-line tool that enables you to run various commands in a Windows PE session. For example, you can shut down or restart Windows PE, enable or disable a firewall, set language settings, and initialize a network.

QUESTION 5
You have a new computer that does not have an operating system installed.
You have a virtual hard disk (VHD) that contains an installation of Windows 7.
You start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE).
You create a partition on the computer and copy the VHD to the partition.
You need to configure the computer to start from the VHD. Which tools should you use?

A.    Diskpart.exe and Bcdboot.exe
B.    Imagex.exe and Bcdedit.exe
C.    Scanstate.exe and Loadstate.exe
D.    Wpeutil.exe and Dism.exe

Answer: A
Explanation:
Diskpart
Microsoft command-line tool Diskpart is used to create and format volumes on the target computer.Bcdboot You now want to apply this customized image to the hard disks of two new computers you have purchased without operating systems. You boot each computer in turn from the Windows PE media and use ImageX to install the image. Your final step, to make the image bootable, is to use BCDboot from Windows PE to initialize the BCD store and copy boot environment files to the system partition. When you reboot each new computer, it will boot into Windows 7 and will have the same settings configured and applications installed as your original computer. Take care you are not violating any licensing conditions.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains 100 computers that run Windows XP. You need to identify which applications installed on all of the computers can run on Windows 7. You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you install?

A.    Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT)
B.    Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit
C.    Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
D.    Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK)

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) 5.6 enables software developers, independent software vendors (ISVs), and IT professionals who work in a corporate environment to determine, before deployment within the organization, whether their applications are compatible with a new version of the Windows?operating system. ACT also enables such individuals to determine how an update to the new version will affect their applications.
You can use the ACT features to:
– Verify your application’s, device’s, and computer’s compatibility with a new version of the Windows operating system, including determining your risk assessment.
– Verify a Windows update’s compatibility, including determining your risk assessment.
– Become involved in the ACT Community, including sharing your application assessment with other ACT users.
– Test your applications for issues related to User Account Control (UAC) by using the Standard User Analyzer (SUA) tool.
– Test your Web applications and Web sites for compatibility with new releases and security updates to Internet Explorer? by using the Internet Explorer Compatibility Test Tool.

QUESTION 7
Your network consists of a single IPv4 subnet. The subnet contains 20 computers that run Windows 7. You add a new computer named Computer1 to the subnet. You discover that Computer1 has an IP address of 169.254.34.12. You cannot connect to other computers on the network. Other computers on the network can connect to each other. You need to ensure that you can connect to all computers on the network. What should you do?

A.    Turn off Windows Firewall.
B.    Run Ipconfig.exe /renew.
C.    Configure a static TCP/IP address.
D.    Run Netsh.exe interface ipv4 install.

Answer: C
Explanation:
[Need better justification]
Configuring static IP addresses
When you assign a static IP address, you need to tell the computer the IP address you want to use, the subnet mask for this IP address, and, if necessary, the default gateway to use for internetwork communications. An IP address is a numeric identifier for a computer. Ip addressing schemes vary according to how your network is configured, but they’re normally assigned based on a particular network segment.

QUESTION 8
Your network consists of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a computer named computer1.contoso.com. Your network is configured to use only IPv6. You need to request that a DNS record be created to enable users to connect to your computer by using the name dev.contoso.com.
Which type of record should you request?

A.    A
B.    AAAA
C.    HINFO
D.    NAPTR

Answer: B
Explanation:
The resolution of host names to IPv6 addresses is accomplished through DNS (apart from link-local addresses that are not stored by DNS and resolve automatically). The procedure is the same as for IPv4 address resolution with the computer name and IPv6 address pair being stored in a AAAA (quad-A) DNS resource record, which is equivalent to an A or host record for IPv4. Reverse DNS lookup that returns a computer name for an IPv6 address is implemented by a pointer (PTR) DNS resource record that is referred to the IPv6 reverse lookup zone (or tree) ipv6.arpa, which is the equivalent of the in-addr.arpa reverse lookup zone in Ipv4.
AAAAAn AAAA (quad-A) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address.AAn A (address) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv4 address.HINFOHost information (HINFO) resource record. Specifies the type of CPU and operating system in the cpu_type and os_type fields, respectively, for the host DNS domain name in the owner field. Well-known CPU and operating system types that are most often used are noted in RFC 1700. This information can be used by application protocols such as FTP, which use special procedures when communicating with computers of a known CPU and operating system type.
NAPTR
The NAPTR represents a Naming Authority Pointer. NAPTR records map between sets of URNs, URLs and plain domain names and suggest to clients what protocol should be used to talk to the mapped resource. Each NAPTR record contains a service name, a set of flags, a regexp rule, an order value, a preference and a replacement. Multiple records can be chained together in a cascade to rewrite URIs in fairly sophisticated, but deterministic ways. These cascading rules have been standardized in RFC2915 and RFC3403.

QUESTION 9
Your network has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five client computers that run Windows 7. All servers are located in the main office. All servers have BranchCache enabled. Users at the branch office report that it takes several minutes to open large files located in the main office. You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for branch office users to open files located in the main office. The solution must also reduce the amount of bandwidth used between the two offices. What should you do?

A.    At the main office, configure the Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler on all servers.
B.    At the main office, configure the servers to use Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS).
C.    At the branch office, configure the client computers to use BranchCache Hosted Cache mode.
D.    At the branch office, configure the client computers to use BranchCache Distributed Cache mode.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Distributed Cache ModeDistributed Cache mode uses peer caching to host the branch office cache among clients running Windows 7 on the branch office network. This means that each Distributed Cache mode client hosts part of the cache, but no single client hosts all the cache. When a client running Windows 7 retrieves content over the WAN, it places that content into its own cache. If another BranchCache client running Windows 7 attempts to access the same content, it is able to access that content directly from the first client rather than having to retrieve it over the WAN link. When it accesses the file from its peer, it also copies that file into its own cache. The advantage of distributed cache mode is that you can deploy it without having to deploy a server running Windows Server 2008 R2 locally in each branch office. The drawback of Distributed Cache mode is that the contents of the cache available on the branch office LAN depend on which clients are currently online. If a client needs a file that is held in the cache of a computer that is shut down, the client needs to retrieve the file from the host server across the WAN.Hosted Cache ModeHosted Cache mode uses a centralized local cache that hosted on a branch office server running Windows Server 2008 R2. You can enable the hosted cache server functionality on a server running Windows Server 2008 R2 that you use for other functions without a significant impact on performance. This is because if you found that files hosted at another location across the WAN were being accessed so frequently that there was a performance impact, you would use a solution like Distributed File System (DFS) to replicate them to the branch office instead of using BranchCache. The advantage of Hosted Cache mode over Distributed Cache mode is that the cache is centralized and always available. Parts of the distributed cache become unavailable when the clients hosting them shut down.Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)The Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) has two role services: the Compact Server and the IIS Server Extension. The Compact Server is a stand-alone HTTP or HTTPS file server, whereas the IIS Server Extension is an Internet Information Services (IIS) plug-in that requires a server running IIS. IIS Server ExtensionThe BITS IIS Server Extension lets you configure a server that is running IIS to allow BITS clients to perform background, resumable file uploads to IIS virtual directories. On completion of a file upload, the BITS Server can notify a Web application of the newly uploaded file. This allows the application to process the uploaded file. The Web application can then optionally reply to the client responsible for the upload.Compact ServerThe BITS Compact Server is a stand- alone HTTP or HTTPS file server, which allows applications to host files for BITS clients to download, and allows the asynchronous transfer of a limited number of large files between computers.QoS Packet SchedulerThe Quality of Service Packet Scheduler is a Windows platform component that is enabled by default on Windows Vista and Windows XP computers. It is, however, not enabled by default on Windows 2003 computers. This scheduler is designed to control the IP traffic for various network services, including Real Time Communications traffic. This component must be installed and enabled if the QoS markings described earlier for audio and video traffic are to be implemented by the IP stack.

QUESTION 10
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You create an Encrypting File System (EFS) recovery key and certificate. You need to ensure that your user account can decrypt all EFS files on the computer. What should you do?

A.    From Credential Manager, add a Windows credential.
B.    From Credential Manager, add a certificate-based credential.
C.    From the local computer policy, add a data recovery agent.
D.    From the local computer policy, modify the Restore files and directories setting.

Answer: C
Explanation:
EFS Recovery
Recovery Agents are certificates that allow the restoration of EFS encrypted files. When a recovery agent has been specified using local policies, all EFS encrypted files can be recovered using the recovery agent private key. You should specify a recovery agent before you allow users to encrypt files on a client running Windows 7. You can recover all files that users encrypt after the creation of a recovery agent using the recovery agent’s private key. You are not able to decrypt files that were encrypted before a recovery agent certificate was specified. You create an EFS recovery agent by performing the following steps:
1. Log on to the client running Windows 7 using the first account created, which is the default administrator account.
2. Open a command prompt and issue the command Cipher.exe /r:recoveryagent
3. This creates two files: Recoveryagent.cer and Recoveryagent.pfx. Cipher.exe prompts you to specify a password when creating Recoveryagent.pfx.
4. Open the Local Group Policy Editor and navigate to the \Computer Configuration\Windows Settings\Security Settings\Public Key Policies\Encrypting File System node. Right-click this node and then click Add Data Recovery Agent. Specify the location of Recoveryagent.cer to specify this certificate as the recovery agent.
5. To recover files, use the certificates console to import Recoveryagent.pfx. This is the recovery agent’s private key. Keep it safe because it can be used to open any encrypted file on the client running Windows 7.

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Official 2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-482 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You want to add a new CDC subscriber in ODI after you have started the Journal process, what steps do you need to go through in order to use this new subscriber?

A.    Drop Journal, remove existing subscribers, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
B.    Drop Journal,add anew subscriber, start Journal, and remove the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
C.    Drop Journal, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
D.    Add anew subscriber and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are loading a file into a database but the file name is unknown at design time and will have to be passed dynamically to a Package at run time; how do you achieve this?

A.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
B.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step
C.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
D.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Select the two correct statements about the Date Profiler.

A.    It can profile string dates written in a variety of formats, such as DD/MM/YYYY or MM/DD/YYYY.
B.    It provides a distribution for the day in the year, such as February 21, regardless of the year.
C.    It allows the EDQ user to define a valid range of dates.
D.    By clicking a date in blue, the user can drill down to the records that carried that value.
E.    It rejects February 29 as an invalid date.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which two ODI knowledge modules are included in the Application Adapter for Hadoop?

A.    IKM Oracle Incremental Update
B.    IKM Hive Transform
C.    IKM SQL to File Append
D.    IKM FiletoHive

Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E27101_01/doc.10/e27365/odi.htm

QUESTION 5
When working with delimited flat files, is it possible to enforce primary key on a flat file using a CKM?

A.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on some technologies such as flat files and JMS queues.
B.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on any technology.
C.    Yes, it is possible also to forward-engineer it to the flat file definition.
D.    Yes, but you have to save it as a fixed file.

Answer: A

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Official 2014 Latest CompTIA SY0-401 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols operates at the HIGHEST level of the OSI model?

A.    ICMP
B.    IPSec
C.    SCP
D.    TCP

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following should an administrator implement to research current attack methodologies?

A.    Design reviews
B.    Honeypot
C.    Vulnerability scanner
D.    Code reviews

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Drag and Drop Question
Task: Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list.
 clip_image002
Answer:
 clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 4
Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server from cross-site scripting attacks?

A.    Intrusion Detection System
B.    Flood Guard Protection
C.    Web Application Firewall
D.    URL Content Filter

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing?

A.    MAC Filtering
B.    WPA – LEAP
C.    WPA – PEAP
D.    Enabled SSID

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:
– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2
 clip_image002[6]
 clip_image002[8]
Answer:
Use the following answer for this simulation task. Below table has all the answers required for this question.
 clip_image002[10]

QUESTION 7
Jane, a security administrator, needs to implement a secure wireless authentication method that uses a remote RADIUS server for authentication.
Which of the following is an authentication method Jane should use?

A.    WPA2-PSK
B.    WEP-PSK
C.    CCMP
D.    LEAP

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Computer evidence at a crime scene is documented with a tag stating who had possession of the evidence at a given time.
Which of the following does this illustrate?

A.    System image capture
B.    Record time offset
C.    Order of volatility
D.    Chain of custody

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department?

A.    Time of day restrictions
B.    Group based privileges
C.    User assigned privileges
D.    Domain admin restrictions

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is being tested when a company’s payroll server is powered off for eight hours?

A.    Succession plan
B.    Business impact document
C.    Continuity of operations plan
D.    Risk assessment plan

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.
Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?

A.    Malicious insider threat
B.    Zero-day
C.    Client-side attack
D.    Malicious add-on

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?

A.    Peer to Peer
B.    Mobile devices
C.    Social networking
D.    Personally owned devices

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A network administrator is responsible for securing applications against external attacks. Every month, the underlying operating system is updated. There is no process in place for other software updates.
Which of the following processes could MOST effectively mitigate these risks?

A.    Application hardening
B.    Application change management
C.    Application patch management
D.    Application firewall review

Answer: C

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Official 2014 Latest Zend 200-550 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1 ^ 2

A.    1
B.    3
C.    2
D.    4
E.    -1

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the output of the following code?
echo “22” + “0.2”, 23 . 1;

A.    220.2231
B.    22.2231
C.    22.2,231
D.    56.2

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the output of the following code?
$first = “second”;
$second = “first”;
echo $$$first;

A.    “first”
B.    “second”
C.    an empty string
D.    an error

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your supervisor wants you to disallow PHP scripts to open remote HTTP and FTP resources using PHP’s file functions. Which php.ini setting should you change accordingly?
Answer: allow_url_fopen, allow_url_fopen=off, allow_url_fopen=Off, allow_url_fopen = off, allow_url_fopen = Off

QUESTION 5
Which of the following code snippets DO NOT write the exact content of the file “source.txt” to “target.txt”? (Choose 2)

A.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, fopen(“source.txt”, “r”));
B.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, readfile(“source.txt”));
C.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, join(file(“source.txt”), “\n”));
D.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, file_get_contents(“source.txt”));
E.    $handle = fopen(“target.txt”, “w+”); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents(“source.txt”)); fclose($handle);

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What is the recommended method of copying data between two opened files?

A.    copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B.    copy($destination_file, $source_file);
C.    stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D.    stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E.    stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following will set a 10 seconds read timeout for a stream?

A.    ini_set(“default_socket_timeout”, 10);
B.    stream_read_timeout($stream, 10);
C.    Specify the timeout as the 5th parameter to the fsockopen() function used to open a stream
D.    stream_set_timeout($stream, 10);
E.    None of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What function allows resizing of PHP’s file write buffer?

A.    ob_start()
B.    set_write_buffer()
C.    stream_set_write_buffer()
D.    Change the output_buffering INI setting via ini_set() function

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What does the __FILE__ constant contain?

A.    The filename of the current script.
B.    The full path to the current script.
C.    The URL of the request made.
D.    The path to the main script.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What can prevent PHP from being able to open a file on the hard drive (Choose 2)?

A.    File system permissions
B.    File is outside of open_basedir
C.    File is inside the /tmp directory.
D.    PHP is running in CGI mode.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
What purpose do namespaces fulfill?

A.    Encapsulation
B.    Alternative to classes
C.    Improved performance
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
When would you use classes and when would you use namespaces?

A.    Use classes to encapsulate code and represent objects, and namespaces to avoid symbol name collisions
B.    Use classes for performance-sensitive code, and namespaces when readability matters more
C.    Use namespaces for performance-sensitive code, and classes when readability matters more
D.    Always use them; namespaces are always superior to classes

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of these elements can be encapsulated by namespaces and made accessible from the outside?

A.    Only classes
B.    Classes, functions and constants
C.    Classes, functions, constants and variables

Answer: B

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QUESTION 11
Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?

A.    (int)’t’;
B.    ord(‘t’);
C.    to_ascii(‘t’);
D.    chr(‘t’);

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?

A.    Cookie Data
B.    Session Data
C.    Remote IP Address
D.    User Agent

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type=”image” name=”myImage” src=”image.png” />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the mouse click?

A.    $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘y’]
B.    $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’]
C.    $_POST[‘myImage.x’] and $_POST[‘myImage.y’]
D.    $_POST[‘myImage_x’] and $_POST[‘myImage_y’]

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Interfaces can extend only one interface
B.    Interfaces can extend more than one interface
C.    Interfaces can inherit a method from different interfaces
D.    Interfaces can redeclare inherited methods

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should you use for this application?

A.    Adapter
B.    Factory
C.    MVC
D.    Singleton

Answer: B

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2014 Latest HP HP2-Z28 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
HP Intelligent Management Centers (IMC’s) Intelligent Configuration Center and Access Control List (ACL) Manager align with which FCAPS category?

A.    Performance
B.    Fault
C.    Accounting
D.    Configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to implement a network access control solution to ensure that only devices which meet company policies are allowed to access the network. Which HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC) modules should you recommend?

A.    Branch Intelligent Management System (BIMS) and Service Health Manager
B.    User Access Management (UAM) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
C.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
D.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Intelligent Analysis Reporter

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which switch series supports meshed stacking, a feature that is similar to Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)?

A.    HP 3500 Switch Series
B.    HP 3800 Switch Series
C.    HP 5400 21 Switch Series
D.    HP 5500 HI Switch Series

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://h30507.www3.hp.com/t5/HP-Networking/5-network-stacking-technology-benefits- Intelligent-Resilient/ba-p/122081#.UweFeUKSxHg

QUESTION 4
Which router would you recommend for a large campus that requires the highest performance?

A.    HP MSR930 Series
B.    HP MSR2000 Series
C.    HP HSR6600 Router Series
D.    HP HSR6800 Router Series

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/networking/products/routers/HP_HSR6800_Router_Series/ind ex.aspx

QUESTION 5
A company needs a data center network solution that isolates different departments’ traffic completely to maintain regulatory compliance. It also needs to save space and purchase as few physical switches as possible. Which HP FlexFabric switch technology meets these needs?

A.    HP Multitenant Device Context (MDC)
B.    HP Virtual Cloud Network (VCN)
C.    HP Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D.    HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx%2Fc03597043.pdf (page 73)
 

If you want to pass the HP HP2-Z28 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest HP HP2-Z28 Demo full version.


Official 2014 Latest Cisco 010-151 Demo Free Download!

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Version: DEMO
 
QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

A.    KVM cable
B.    console cable
C.    Ethernet cable
D.    SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A.    on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C.    on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?

A.    Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B.    Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C.    Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D.    Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A.    Amber
B.    Red
C.    Blinking amber
D.    Blinking red

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A.    up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B.    up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C.    up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D.    two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B.    Virtual Ethernet Module
C.    Virtual Supervisor Module
D.    Virtual Memory Controller Module
E.    Virtual Network Module

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A.    Cisco Nexus 5548P
B.    Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C.    Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D.    Cisco Nexus 5596T

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?

A.    MDS 9513
B.    MDS 9509
C.    MDS 9506
D.    MDS 9250i

Answer: A

If you want to pass the Cisco 010-15 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 010-151 Demo full version.

clip_image001


Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-416 Dump Free Download(21-30)!

QUESTION 21
You have a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) publishing server named Server1. Some users connect to the network by using a cellular connection. You need to prevent the users from downloading App-V packages the first time they run the application that is associated to the package. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the App-V Streaming settings.
B.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the App-V Publishing settings.
C.    From each client computer, run the Set-AppvClientConfiguration cmdlet.
D.    From each client computer, run the Set-AppvClientPackage cmdlet.

Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop Question
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. You plan to use Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) 5.0 as an application virtualization platform. You have an application named App1. App1 requires a system restart during its installation. You install the App-V Sequencer on a client computer named CL1 that runs Windows 8. You need to sequence App1. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image002
Answer:

clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 23
You deploy several RemoteApp programs. You need to identify which file extensions on a client computer are associated with the RemoteApp programs. Which Control Panel item should you use? To answer, select the appropriate object in the answer area.

clip_image002[6]
Answer:

clip_image002[8]

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) deployment. The deployment contains three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

clip_image001
You publish multiple RemoteApp programs in a collection named Collection1. You need to ensure that users can view the RemoteApp programs published to them from the Start screen. What should you do?

A.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), set the default connection URL of RemoteApp and Desktop
Connections to https:// server2.contoso.com/rdweb/collection1.
B.    In the contoso.com zone, create a text (TXT) record that contains https://server3.contoso.com/rdweb/feed
in the Text field.
C.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), set the default connection URL of RemoteApp and Desktop Connections
to https://Server1.contoso.com/rdweb/feed.
D.    In the contoso.com zone, create a text (TXT) record that contains https://collection1.contoso.com/rdweb/feed
in the Text field.

Answer: A
In the real Exam you have to chose Server3 which adds a connection URL to the rdweb/feed
Explaination:
Webfeed has always to do with RDWA and TXT is only used when one wants to log on through email.

Continue reading


Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-416 Dump Free Download(11-20)!

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain has Remote Desktop Services (RDS) deployed. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Licensing role service installed. You need to back up the Remote Desktop Licensing (RD Licensing) database. Which folder should you include in the backup? To answer, select the appropriate folder in the answer area.

clip_image001
Answer:

clip_image001[4]

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Remote Desktop Licensing role service installed. Server1 fails. You discover that all of the backups for Server1 are unavailable. You deploy a new server named Server2. You install the Remote Desktop Licensing role service on Server2. You need to rebuild the Remote Desktop Licensing (RD Licensing) database on Server2. Which tool should you use?

A.    Server Manager
B.    The Add-RDLicense cmdlet
C.    The RD Licensing Diagnoser
D.    Remote Desktop Licensing Manager

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Drag and Drop Question
Your network contains a main datacenter and a disaster recovery datacenter. The main datacenter contains a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI). The Hyper-V hosts run on a failover cluster. The virtual desktop infrastructure contains 50 personal virtual desktops that have custom settings. In the disaster recovery datacenter, you implement a Hyper-V failover cluster. You plan to implement a business continuity solution for the 50 personal virtual desktops. The virtual desktops must meet the following requirements:
Replicate to the Hyper-V cluster in the disaster recovery datacenter. Connect to the local network resources in the disaster recovery datacenter if a failover occurs.
Use application-consistent replicas.
You need to identify what must be implemented to meet the requirements of the planned deployment.
What should you identify?
To answer, drag the appropriate task to the correct requirement in the answer are a. Each task may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

clip_image002
Answer:

clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8. You plan to deploy two applications named App1 and App2 to the client computers. App2 is updated by the application manufacturer every month. You need to recommend an application distribution strategy for the applications. The solution must meet the following requirements:
The executable files of App1 must NOT be stored on the client computers. Users who run App2 must run the latest version of App2 only. What should you recommend using to deploy the applications?

A.    RemoteApp programs
B.    Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
C.    Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) in standalone mode
D.    A Group Policy software distribution package assigned to the computer accounts

Answer: A
Explanation:
*RemoteApp enables you to make programs that are accessed remotely through Remote Desktop Services appear as if they are running on the end user’s local computer. These programs are referred toas RemoteApp programs. Instead of being presented to the user in the desktop of the Remote Desktop Session Host (RD Session Host) server, the RemoteApp program is integrated with the client’s desktop. The RemoteApp program runs in its own resizable window, can be dragged between multiple monitors, and has its own entry in the taskbar. If a user is running more than one RemoteApp program on the same RD Session Host server, the RemoteApp program will share the same Remote Desktop Services session.
Incorrect:
Not B:
*The App-V clients may also be used in a “stand-alone” mode without either of the server infrastructures. In this case, the sequenced packages are delivered using an external technique, such as an Electronic Software Delivery system or manual deployment. *Microsoft Application Virtualization (MS App-V) platform allows applications to be deployed (“streamed”) in real-time to any client from a virtual application server. It removes the need for traditional local installation of the applications, although a standalone deployment method is also supported. With a streaming-based implementation, the App-V client needs to be installed on the client machines and application data that is stored on the virtual application server is installed (streamed) to the client cache on demand when it is first used, or pre-installed in a local cache.

QUESTION 15
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. The client computers are installed as virtual machines by using a VHD OS image named Image.vhdx. A line-of-business application named App1 is installed in Image.vhdx by using Microsoft Windows Installer. A new patch named Update.msp is available for App1. You need to ensure that all newly created virtual machines have the latest version of App1 installed. What should you do first? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    Assign Update.msp to the virtual machines by using a Group Policy object (GPO).
B.    Run dism.exe and specify the /online parameter.
C.    Configure a physical computer to start from Image.vhdx.
D.    Create a new virtual machine by using Image.vhdx.

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. You plan to deploy an application named App1 to 10 client computers. App1 only runs on Windows XP. You need to recommend an application deployment strategy for Appl. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), assign App1 to the 10 client computers.
B.    From a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) publishing server, publish App1 as an App- V package.
C.    From a Hyper-V host, install App1 on 10 virtual machines that are enabled for RemoteApp for Hyper.
D.    From a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) server, deploy App1 as a RemoteApp program.

Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Drag and Drop Question
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. You have a standard company image named Image.wim that contains a third-party application named Appl. Image.wim only contains one image. App1 uses a dynamic link library (DLL) file stored in C:\AppData. A new version of App1 named App2 is available. You need to update the DLL file in Image.wim. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image002[6]
Answer:

clip_image002[8]

QUESTION 18
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office is located in New York. The branch office is located in Toronto. The offices connect to each other by using a slow WAN link. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 8. All users have several third- party applications installed. The third-party applications are updated frequently by their manufacturers. You need to recommend an application management solution that meets the following requirements:
If the installation of an application update fails, the installation must restart automatically. Administrators must be able to generate reports that contain a list of all the failed installations of application updates.
Which application management solution should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    Deploy pooled virtual desktops by using a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI).
B.    Assign applications and updates by using Group Policy.
C.    Deploy packages by using Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
D.    Sequence applications by using Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) streaming.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and client computers that run Windows 7. All of the client computers run a standard image of Windows 7. The network has Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) 6.0 deployed. The network contains three computers. The computers are configured as shown in the following table.

clip_image001[6]
You plan to upgrade all of the client computers to Windows 8. You need to identify whether an application named App1 can run on Windows 8. What should you deploy?

A.    An inventory-collector package to Client2
B.    An inventory-collector package to Client1
C.    A runtime-analysis package to Client1
D.    A runtime-analysis package to Client2

Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You need to recommend an application distribution strategy to meet the following requirements:
Enable client computers to use different versions of the same application. Minimize the amount of hardware resources used on the client computers. Which application distribution strategy should you recommend?

A.    Install the applications on Remote Desktop Services (RDS) servers, and then publish the applications
as RemoteApp programs.
B.    Create a Windows Installer package for each application, and then deploy the packages by using a
Group Policy object (GPO).
C.    Create a Windows Installer package for each application, and then deploy the packages by using
Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
D.    Sequence the applications by using the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) Sequencer, and
then deploy the applications by using App-V streaming.

Answer: D

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Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-416 Dump Free Download(1-10)!

QUESTION 1
Your company plans to implement a monitoring solution for application licenses. The corporate management policy states that all newly deployed technologies must be cloudbased. You need to recommend a license monitoring solution that meets the management policy. Which license monitoring solution should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.

A.    The Microsoft Asset Inventory Service (AIS)
B.    Asset Intelligence in Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
C.    The Microsoft License Statement tool
D.    The Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain has Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager deployed. You plan to implement Asset Intelligence reports by using Configuration Manager. You discover that the inventory data required for the Asset Intelligence reports is missing. You need to configure Configuration Manager to collect the inventory data required for the Asset Intelligence reports. What should you enable in the default settings of the client agent? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.

clip_image002
Answer:

clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 3
You have a virtual infrastructure. The infrastructure contains servers that run Windows Server 2012 and have Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) 5.0 installed. You sequence an application named App1, and then assign App1 by using a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. The manufacturer of App1 releases an update named Updateappl.msi. You need to deploy the updated version of App1 to all of the App-V 5.0 clients. The solution must ensure that all of the App-V 5.0 clients only run the updated version of Appl. What should you do?

A.    Create a new GPO, and then assign Updateapp1.msi.
B.    From the App-V Sequencer, sequence Updateappl.msi, and then create a new GPO.
C.    From the App-V Sequencer, update App1.appv, and then modify the GPO.
D.    Create a new GPO, and then publish Updateappl.msi.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. A network technician installs the Remote Desktop Session Host role service on Server1. The technician cannot manage Remote Desktop Services (RDS) by using Server Manager. You need to ensure that you can manage RDS by using Server Manager on Server1. What should you do first?

A.    Install the Remote Desktop Connection Broker role service.
B.    Run an RDS scenario-based installation.
C.    Add Server1 to the RDS Management Servers group.
D.    Install the Remote Desktop Services Tools feature-

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Drag and Drop Question
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. You need to deploy an application named App1 to Server1. The deployment must ensure that hundreds of Remote Desktop Services (RDS) clients can access Appl. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image001
Answer:

clip_image001[4]
Explanation:
Box 1: Run change.exe user /install To install an end-user application on an RD Session Host server, the RD Session Host server must first be switched into a special install mode called RD-Install to ensure that the application will be able to run in a multi-user environment.
Box 2: Install App1 on Server.
Box 3: Run change.exe user /execute After your applications have been installed on your RD Session Host server, you must switch the server back into execution mode (RD-Execute) before users can remotely connect to your server. You can switch between the install and execute modes from the command line using these commands:change user /installchange user /execute Reference: Technet, Learn How To Install Applications on an RD Session Host Server

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) infrastructure. The RDS infrastructure contains five servers that run Windows Server 2012. All client computers run Windows 8. You need to recommend a software delivery method to meet the following requirements:
Minimize the amount of hardware resources used on the client computers. Ensure that applications are launched by using document invocation.
What should you recommend?

A.    From an RDS server, publish RemoteApp programs.
From the client computers, create a Remote Desktop connection.
B.    From a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) publishing server, publish App-V packages, and then
modify the list of file type associations.
C.    From an RDS server, publish RemoteApp programs. From the client computers, create a new connection URL.
D.    From a Group Policy, assign applications to all of the client computers, and then run gpupdate.exe /force
on each client computer.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You deploy Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS). You plan to deploy several applications by using RemoteApp. Users will access the RemoteApp programs from domain-joined computers, home computers, and publicly accessible computers. The corporate security policy requires that all RemoteApp files be digitally signed. You need to recommend which certificate the company must use to digitally sign the RemoteApp files. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    A server authentication certificate from an internal certificate authority (CA)
B.    A server authentication certificate from a trusted third-party certification authority (CA)
C.    A self-signed code signing certificate
D.    A client authentication certificate from a trusted third-party certification authority (CA)

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
You deploy a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) collection. You plan to provide users with access to Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) applications by using Remote Desktop connections. You publish several applications to an App-V publishing server. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of storage space required on the RDS servers for the App-V applications. The solution must minimize the amount of time it takes for users to open the App-V applications. What four actions should you perform? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

clip_image002[6]
Answer:

clip_image002[8]

QUESTION 9
You plan to deploy a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) infrastructure. You need to recommend a configuration for the App-V management database. The solution must ensure that you can manage the App-V infrastructure if a server that has Microsoft SQL Server installed fails. What should you recommend implementing? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.

A.    Log shipping
B.    A SQL Server failover cluster
C.    Peer-to-peer replication
D.    Database mirroring

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your company plans to deploy a Microsoft Application Visualization (App-V) 5.0 infrastructure. You need to recommend a strategy to ensure that you can manage the App-V 5.0 infrastructure if a single management server fails. What should you include in the recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A.    Failover Clustering
B.    Database mirroring
C.    Network Load Balancing (NLB)
D.    DNS round robin

Answer: C

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QUESTION 8
What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?

A.    255 Bytes
B.    255 Characters
C.    512 Bytes
D.    512 Characters
E.    No Limit

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
} function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;

A.    2
B.    1
C.    0
D.    3
E.    No Output, PHP will generate an error message.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)

A.    Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B.    Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C.    Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D.    Recover from user errors

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?

A.    (int)’t’;
B.    ord(‘t’);
C.    to_ascii(‘t’);
D.    chr(‘t’);

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?

A.    Cookie Data
B.    Session Data
C.    Remote IP Address
D.    User Agent

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type=”image” name=”myImage” src=”image.png” />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the mouse click?

A.    $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘y’]
B.    $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’]
C.    $_POST[‘myImage.x’] and $_POST[‘myImage.y’]
D.    $_POST[‘myImage_x’] and $_POST[‘myImage_y’]

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Interfaces can extend only one interface
B.    Interfaces can extend more than one interface
C.    Interfaces can inherit a method from different interfaces
D.    Interfaces can redeclare inherited methods

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should you use for this application?

A.    Adapter
B.    Factory
C.    MVC
D.    Singleton

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3)

A.    A single function
B.    A single method from a class
C.    Multiple functions at once
D.    All methods from a class
E.    All classes defined in a script

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?

A.    getAttributeNS()
B.    getAttribute()
C.    hasAttribute()
D.    hasAttributeNS()

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?

A.    Class
B.    String
C.    Object
D.    Array

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
REST is a(n) …

A.    Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B.    Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C.    API to get information from social networking sites.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
echo 0x33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;

A.    33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B.    51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C.    monkeys sit on trees.
D.    0x33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function should be used for the best possible result?

A.    levenshtein()
B.    metaphone()
C.    similar_text()
D.    soundex()

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);

A.    Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B.    Error: Typehints cannot be references
C.    Result is NULL
D.    Result is object of type stdClass
E.    Result is 42

Answer: E

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QUESTION 11
You use Microsoft Test Manager to test a solution. Which two statements about using test cases in Microsoft Test Manager are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    You can share steps between different test cases.
B.    You need to add all fields to a test case when you create the test case.
C.    You must define test cases by using Microsoft Test Manager.
D.    You can add attachments and hyperlinks to test cases.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/vstudio/dd380712(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Severitydescribes how much a defect affects an application. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Effect level
C.    Scope
D.    Priority

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You need to show the rolling average of the number of bugs that the testing team has opened, resolved, and closed.
Which report should you show?

A.    Bug trend
B.    Build quality indicators
C.    Bug status
D.    Burn rate

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug convergence is the point at which the number of bugs resolved exceeds the number of bugs found.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Baseline
C.    Burndown
D.    Code coverage

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How many test plans are created in projects that use an agile methodology?

A.    One master test plan and one test plan for each sprint
B.    One test plan for each sprint
C.    One master test plan
D.    Multiple test plans for each sprint

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
When you log a bug, which two items should you include in the bug report to reproduce the bug? (Choose two.)

A.    The actions leading up to the bug
B.    The author of the code
C.    A description of the actual results
D.    The severity of bug

Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Hotspot Question
You run a load test in Microsoft Test Manager. You monitor performance counters by using the Load Test Analyzer. The following graphic displays representative data:

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Use the drop-down lists to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

clip_image001

Answer:

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QUESTION 3
As part of a development team in a test-driven development environment, you are given the requirements for a new software system.
What should you do first?

A.    Implement the system in the code.
B.    Write a user story for the system.
C.    Run all existing test cases to validate they succeed.
D.    Write a test case for the new system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. In a use case diagram, the association between an actor and a use case can show a generalization at each end.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Alternative
C.    Multiplicity
D.    Subsystem boundary

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Fault tolerance is a redundancy technique that completely hides errors within a set of redundant modules.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Fault masking
C.    Exception handling
D.    Regression testing

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A system has the following requirement:
Patients should be sent to the Emergency Room if their respiratory rate is >= 20 and their age is >= 65.
How many test cases should you write to test all combinations of conditions?

A.    0
B.    2
C.    4
D.    9

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question
You create work items to test the features of an application. Match each work item type to its description. To answer, drag the appropriate work item type from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each work item type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.

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Answer:

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QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
Match each status to its test step. To answer, drag the appropriate status from the column on the left to its test step on the right. Each status may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.

clip_image002[6]

Answer:

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QUESTION 9
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug tracking is the process of assigning severity and priority to a reported bug. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Logging
C.    Resolution
D.    Triage

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Hotspot Question
You are asked to train an intern to create bug reports by using Team Foundation Server (TFS). You review the following bug report your intern created:

clip_image002[8]
When this bug occurs, the user cannot continue using the application. Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

clip_image001[10]
Answer:

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