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QUESTION 385
A Linux administrator needs to change the permission on a script so that he owner has permission to execute.
Which of the following BEST accomplishes this task?

A. Chmod ug=script,sh
B. Chmod u+x script,sh
C. Chmod -x script,sh
D. Chmod 0644 script,sh

Answer: A

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August/2022 Latest Braindump2go CS0-002 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go CS0-002 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 807
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company.
Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
– There must be one primary server or service per device.
– Only default port should be used.
– Non-secure protocols should be disabled.
– The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet.
Instructions:
– Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine:
– ip address of each device
– The primary server or service each device
– The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines
If at any time you would like to bring back.

Answer:

QUESTION 808
A security analyst is reviewing the following server statistics:

Which of the following Is MOST likely occurring?

A. Race condition
B. Privilege escalation
C. Resource exhaustion
D. VM escape

Answer: C

QUESTION 809
A software developer is correcting the error-handling capabilities of an application following the initial coding of the fix.
Which of the following would the software developer MOST likely performed to validate the code poor to pushing it to production?

A. Web-application vulnerability scan
B. Static analysis
C. Packet inspection
D. Penetration test

Answer: B

QUESTION 810
Forming a hypothesis, looking for indicators of compromise, and using the findings to proactively improve detection capabilities are examples of the value of:

A. vulnerability scanning.
B. threat hunting.
C. red learning.
D. penetration testing.

Answer: A

QUESTION 811
Which of the following BEST explains the function of a managerial control?

A. To help design and implement the security planning, program development, and maintenance of the security life cycle
B. To guide the development of training, education, security awareness programs, and system maintenance
C. To create data classification, risk assessments, security control reviews, and contingency planning
D. To ensure tactical design, selection of technology to protect data, logical access reviews, and the implementation of audit trails

Answer: A

QUESTION 812
Which of the following types of controls defines placing an ACL on a file folder?

A. Technical control
B. Confidentiality control
C. Managerial control
D. Operational control

Answer: A

QUESTION 813
A code review reveals a web application is using lime-based cookies for session management. This is a security concern because lime-based cookies are easy to:

A. parameterize.
B. decode.
C. guess.
D. decrypt.

Answer: A

QUESTION 814
A security analyst discovers suspicious host activity while performing monitoring activities. The analyst pulls a packet capture for the activity and sees the following:

Which of the following describes what has occurred?
The host attempted to download an application from utoftor.com.

A. The host downloaded an application from utoftor.com.
B. The host attempted to make a secure connection to utoftor.com.
C. The host rejected the connection from utoftor.com.

Answer:

QUESTION 815
A security analyst is reviewing the following Internet usage trend report:

Which of the following usernames should the security analyst investigate further?

A. User1
B. User 2
C. User 3
D. User 4

Answer: B

QUESTION 816
A consultant evaluating multiple threat intelligence leads to assess potential risks for a client. Which of the following is the BEST approach for the consultant to consider when modeling the client’s attack surface?

A. Ask for external scans from industry peers, look at the open ports, and compare Information with the client.
B. Discuss potential tools the client can purchase lo reduce the livelihood of an attack.
C. Look at attacks against similar industry peers and assess the probability of the same attacks happening.
D. Meet with the senior management team to determine if funding is available for recommended solutions.

Answer: C

QUESTION 817
Which of the following, BEST explains the function of TPM?

A. To provide hardware-based security features using unique keys
B. To ensure platform confidentiality by storing security measurements
C. To improve management of the OS installation.
D. To implement encryption algorithms for hard drives

Answer: A

QUESTION 818
A manufacturing company uses a third-party service provider for Tier 1 security support. One of the requirements is that the provider must only source talent from its own country due to geopolitical and national security interests. Which of the following can the manufacturing company implement to ensure the third-party service provider meets this requirement?

A. Implement a secure supply chain program with governance.
B. Implement blacklisting lor IP addresses from outside the county.
C. Implement strong authentication controls for at contractors.
D. Implement user behavior analytics tor key staff members.

Answer: A

QUESTION 819
A company’s application development has been outsourced to a third-party development team.
Based on the SLA. The development team must follow industry best practices for secure coding. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify this agreement?

A. Input validation
B. Security regression testing
C. Application fuzzing
D. User acceptance testing
E. Stress testing

Answer: D

QUESTION 820
A security administrator needs to provide access from partners to an Isolated laboratory network inside an organization that meets the following requirements:
– The partners’ PCs must not connect directly to the laboratory network.
– The tools the partners need to access while on the laboratory network must be available to all partners
– The partners must be able to run analyses on the laboratory network, which may take hours to complete
Which of the following capabilities will MOST likely meet the security objectives of the request?

A. Deployment of a jump box to allow access to the laboratory network and use of VDI in persistent mode to provide the necessary tools for analysis
B. Deployment of a firewall to allow access to the laboratory network and use of VDI in non- persistent mode to provide the necessary tools tor analysis
C. Deployment of a firewall to allow access to the laboratory network and use of VDI In persistent mode to provide the necessary tools for analysis
D. Deployment of a jump box to allow access to the Laboratory network and use of VDI in non- persistent mode to provide the necessary tools for analysis

Answer: C

QUESTION 821
Which of the following are the MOST likely reasons lo include reporting processes when updating an incident response plan after a breach? (Select TWO).

A. To establish a clear chain of command
B. To meet regulatory requirements for timely reporting
C. To limit reputation damage caused by the breach
D. To remediate vulnerabilities that led to the breach
E. To isolate potential insider threats
F. To provide secure network design changes

Answer: BF

QUESTION 822
Which of the following is MOST dangerous to the client environment during a vulnerability assessment penetration test?

A. There is a longer period of time to assess the environment.
B. The testing is outside the contractual scope
C. There is a shorter period of time to assess the environment
D. No status reports are included with the assessment.

Answer: B

QUESTION 823
Which of the following is MOST important when developing a threat hunting program?

A. Understanding penetration testing techniques
B. Understanding how to build correlation rules within a SIEM
C. Understanding security software technologies
D. Understanding assets and categories of assets

Answer: D

QUESTION 824
Which of the following are considered PH by themselves? (Select TWO).

A. Government ID
B. Job title
C. Employment start date
D. Birth certificate
E. Employer address
F. Mother’s maiden name

Answer: AD

QUESTION 825
Which of the following BEST describes HSM?

A. A computing device that manages cryptography, decrypts traffic, and maintains library calls
B. A computing device that manages digital keys, performs encryption/decryption functions, and maintains other cryptographic functions
C. A computing device that manages physical keys, encrypts devices, and creates strong cryptographic functions
D. A computing device that manages algorithms, performs entropy functions, and maintains digital signatures

Answer: B

QUESTION 826
A threat hurting team received a new loC from an ISAC that follows a threat actor’s profile and activities. Which of the following should be updated NEXT?

A. The whitelist
B. The DNS
C. The blocklist
D. The IDS signature

Answer: D

QUESTION 827
Which of the following BEST describes what an organizations incident response plan should cover regarding how the organization handles public or private disclosures of an incident?

A. The disclosure section should focus on how to reduce the likelihood customers will leave due to the incident.
B. The disclosure section should contain the organization’s legal and regulatory requirements regarding disclosures.
C. The disclosure section should include the names and contact information of key employees who are needed for incident resolution
D. The disclosure section should contain language explaining how the organization will reduce the likelihood of the incident from happening m the future.

Answer: B

QUESTION 828
An IT security analyst has received an email alert regarding vulnerability within the new fleet of vehicles the company recently purchased. Which of the following attack vectors is the vulnerability MOST likely targeting?

A. SCADA
B. CAN bus
C. Modbus
D. loT

Answer: D

QUESTION 829
After examining a header and footer file, a security analyst begins reconstructing files by scanning the raw data bytes of a hard disk and rebuilding them. Which of the following techniques is the analyst using?

A. Header analysis
B. File carving
C. Metadata analysis
D. Data recovery

Answer: B

QUESTION 831
A company’s domain has been spooled in numerous phishing campaigns. An analyst needs to determine the company is a victim of domain spoofing, despite having a DMARC record that should tell mailbox providers to ignore any email that fails DMARC upon review of the record, the analyst finds the following:

Which of the following BEST explains the reason why the company’s requirements are not being processed correctly by mailbox providers?

A. The DMARC record’s DKIM alignment tag Is incorrectly configured.
B. The DMARC record’s policy tag is incorrectly configured.
C. The DMARC record does not have an SPF alignment lag.
D. The DMARC record’s version tag is set to DMARC1 instead of the current version, which is DMARC3.

Answer: C

QUESTION 832
Which of the following BEST explains the function of trusted firmware updates as they relate to hardware assurance?

A. Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with development, compilation, remote access, and customization for embedded devices.
B. Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with security specifications, open-source libraries, and custom toots for embedded devices.
C. Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with remote code execution, distribution, maintenance, and extended warranties for embedded devices
D. Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with secure code signing, distribution, installation. and attestation for embedded devices.

Answer: D

QUESTION 833
A help desk technician inadvertently sent the credentials of the company’s CRM n clear text to an employee’s personal email account. The technician then reset the employee’s account using the appropriate process and the employee’s corporate email, and notified the security team of the incident According to the incident response procedure, which of the following should the security team do NEXT?

A. Contact the CRM vendor.
B. Prepare an incident summary report.
C. Perform postmortem data correlation.
D. Update the incident response plan.

Answer: C

QUESTION 834
A developer downloaded and attempted to install a file transfer application in which the installation package is bundled with acKvare. The next-generation antivirus software prevented the file from executing, but it did not remove the file from the device. Over the next few days, more developers tried to download and execute the offending file. Which of the following changes should be made to the security tools to BEST remedy the issue?

A. Blacklist the hash in the next-generation antivirus system.
B. Manually delete the file from each of the workstations.
C. Remove administrative rights from all developer workstations.
D. Block the download of the fie via the web proxy

Answer: D

QUESTION 835
After detecting possible malicious external scanning, an internal vulnerability scan was performed, and a critical server was found with an outdated version of JBoss. A legacy application that is running depends on that version of JBoss. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST to prevent server compromise and business disruption at the same time?

A. Make a backup of the server and update the JBoss server that is running on it.
B. Contact the vendor for the legacy application and request an updated version.
C. Create a proper DMZ for outdated components and segregate the JBoss server.
D. Apply visualization over the server, using the new platform to provide the JBoss service for the legacy application as an external service.

Answer: C

QUESTION 836
An incident response team detected malicious software that could have gained access to credit card data. The incident response team was able to mitigate significant damage and implement corrective actions. By having incident response mechanisms in place. Which of the following should be notified for lessons learned?

A. The human resources department
B. Customers
C. Company leadership
D. The legal team

Answer: D

QUESTION 837
In SIEM software, a security analysis selected some changes to hash signatures from monitored files during the night followed by SMB brute-force attacks against the file servers Based on this behavior, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST to prevent a more serious compromise?

A. Fully segregate the affected servers physically in a network segment, apart from the production network.
B. Collect the network traffic during the day to understand if the same activity is also occurring during business hours
C. Check the hash signatures, comparing them with malware databases to verify if the files are infected.
D. Collect all the files that have changed and compare them with the previous baseline

Answer: A

QUESTION 838
While implementing a PKI for a company, a security analyst plans to utilize a dedicated server as the certAcate authority that is only used to sign intermediate certificates. Which of the following are the MOST secure states for the certificate authority server when it is not in use? (Select TWO)

A. On a private VLAN
B. Full disk encrypted
C. Powered off
D. Backed up hourly
E. VPN accessible only
F. Air gapped

Answer: EF

QUESTION 839
Which of the following BEST identifies the appropriate use of threat intelligence as a function of detection and response?

A. To identify weaknesses in an organization’s security posture
B. To identify likely attack scenarios within an organization
C. To build a business security plan for an organization
D. To build a network segmentation strategy

Answer: B

QUESTION 840
While conoXicting a cloud assessment, a security analyst performs a Prowler scan, which generates the following within the report:

Based on the Prowler report, which of the following is the BEST recommendation?

A. Delete Cloud Dev access key 1
B. Delete BusinessUsr access key 1.
C. Delete access key 1.
D. Delete access key 2.

Answer: D

QUESTION 841
An internally developed file-monitoring system identified the following except as causing a program to crash often:

Which of the following should a security analyst recommend to fix the issue?

A. Open the access.log file ri read/write mode.
B. Replace the strcpv function.
C. Perform input samtizaton
D. Increase the size of the file data buffer

Answer: A

QUESTION 842
An organization has the following policy statements:
– AlI emails entering or leaving the organization will be subject to inspection for malware, policy violations, and unauthorized coolant.
– All network activity will be logged and monitored.
– Confidential data will be tagged and tracked
– Confidential data must never be transmitted in an unencrypted form.
– Confidential data must never be stored on an unencrypted mobile device.
Which of the following is the organization enforcing?

A. Acceptable use policy
B. Data privacy policy
C. Encryption policy
D. Data management, policy

Answer: B

QUESTION 843
A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is concerned the company will be exposed lo data sovereignty issues as a result of some new privacy regulations to help mitigate this risk. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to implement an appropriate technical control. Which of the following would meet the requirement?

A. Data masking procedures
B. Enhanced encryption functions
C. Regular business impact analysis functions
D. Geographic access requirements

Answer: B

QUESTION 844
A security analyst needs to provide the development learn with secure connectivity from the corporate network to a three-tier cloud environment. The developers require access to servers in all three tiers in order to perform various configuration tasks. Which of the following technologies should the analyst implement to provide secure transport?

A. CASB
B. VPC
C. Federation
D. VPN

Answer: D

QUESTION 845
A security analyst found an old version of OpenSSH running on a DMZ server and determined the following piece of code could have led to a command execution through an integer overflow;

Which of the following controls must be in place to prevent this vulnerability?

A. Convert all integer numbers in strings to handle the memory buffer correctly.
B. Implement float numbers instead of integers to prevent integer overflows.
C. Use built-in functions from libraries to check and handle long numbers properly.
D. Sanitize user inputs, avoiding small numbers that cannot be handled in the memory.

Answer: C

QUESTION 846
A cyber-security analyst is implementing a new network configuration on an existing network access layer to prevent possible physical attacks. Which of the following BEST describes a solution that would apply and cause fewer issues during the deployment phase?

A. Implement port security with one MAC address per network port of the switch.
B. Deploy network address protection with DHCP and dynamic VLANs.
C. Configure 802.1X and EAPOL across the network
D. Implement software-defined networking and security groups for isolation

Answer: C

QUESTION 847
A security analyst at exampte.com receives a SIEM alert for an IDS signature and reviews the associated packet capture and TCP stream:


Winch of the following actions should the security analyst lake NEXT?

A. Review the known Apache vulnerabilities to determine if a compromise actually occurred
B. Contact the application owner for connect example local tor additional information
C. Mark the alert as a false positive scan coming from an approved source.
D. Raise a request to the firewall team to block 203.0.113.15.

Answer: D

QUESTION 849
While monitoring the information security notification mailbox, a security analyst notices several emails were repotted as spam. Which of the following should the analyst do FIRST?

A. Block the sender In the email gateway.
B. Delete the email from the company’s email servers.
C. Ask the sender to stop sending messages.
D. Review the message in a secure environment.

Answer: D

QUESTION 850
Company A is m the process of merging with Company B As part of the merger, connectivity between the ERP systems must be established so portent financial information can be shared between the two entitles. Which of the following will establish a more automated approach to secure data transfers between the two entities?

A. Set up an FTP server that both companies can access and export the required financial data to a folder.
B. Set up a VPN between Company A and Company B. granting access only lo the ERPs within the connection
C. Set up a PKI between Company A and Company B and Intermediate shared certificates between the two entities
D. Create static NATs on each entity’s firewalls that map lo the ERP systems and use native ERP authentication to allow access.

Answer: B

QUESTION 851
A company has alerted planning the implemented a vulnerability management procedure. However, to security maturity level is low, so there are some prerequisites to complete before risk calculation and prioritization. Which of the following should be completed FIRST?

A. A business Impact analysis
B. A system assessment
C. Communication of the risk factors
D. A risk identification process

Answer: D

QUESTION 852
A security learn implemented a SCM as part for its security-monitoring program there is a requirement to integrate a number of sources Into the SIEM to provide better context relative to the events being processed. Which of the following BST describes the result the security learn hopes to accomplish by adding these sources?

A. Data enrichment
B. Continuous integration
C. Machine learning
D. Workflow orchestration

Answer: A

QUESTION 853
A security analyst is investigate an no client related to an alert from the threat detection platform on a host (10.0 1.25) in a staging environment that could be running a cryptomining tool because it in sending traffic to an IP address that are related to Bitcoin. The network rules for the instance are the following:

Which of the following is the BEST way to isolate and triage the host?

A. Remove rules 1.2. and 3.
B. Remove rules 1.2. 4. and 5.
C. Remove rules 1.2. 3.4. and 5.
D. Remove rules 1.2. and 5.
E. Remove rules 1.4. and 5.
F. Remove rules 4 and 5

Answer: D


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QUESTION 220
A business wants to migrate its workloads from an exclusively on-premises IT infrastructure to the cloud but cannot implement all the required controls. Which of the following BEST describes the risk associated with this implementation?

A. Loss of governance
B. Vendor lockout
C. Compliance risk
D. Vendor lock-in

Answer: C

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QUESTION 210
An engineer is configuring the remote access VPN to use Cisco ISE for AAA and needs to conduct posture checks on the connecting endpoints. After the endpoint connects, it receives its initial authorization result and continues onto the compliance scan.
What must be done for this AAA configuration to allow compliant access to the network?

A. Configure the posture authorization so it defaults to unknown status
B. Fix the CoA port number
C. Ensure that authorization only mode is not enabled
D. Enable dynamic authorization within the AAA server group

Answer: D

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Question: 25
A Microsoft Windows user is preparing to work in another country and needs to comply with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable medi
a. Which of the following solutions would MOST likely satisfy this requirement?
A. A USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed
B. An SD memory card with NTFS
C. An xD memory card with ext3
D. A portable hard drive with FAT32

Answer: A

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QUESTION 85
A company wants an application that meets the following requirements:
Display the latest news about the company.
Recommend leads to sales team members.
You need to identify an application to meet the requirements. What should you recommend?

A. Dynamics 365 Customer Service
B. Linkedln Campaign Manager
C. Dynamics 365 Sales Insights
D. Linkedln Sales Navigator

Answer: C

QUESTION 86
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales.
You disqualify a lead. On a later date, the lead shows interest in buying a product that the company sells.
You need to convert the lead to an opportunity and retain all available history.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Qualify the closed lead as an opportunity.
B. Qualify the reactivated lead to an opportunity.
C. Convert the copied lead to an opportunity.
D. Use the Reactivate Lead functionality to reopen the lead.
E. Create a copy of the lead with data from the original lead.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 87
Which three capabilities are included in Dynamics 365 Marketing? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Qualify leads
B. Case management
C. Dynamics 365 Connector for Linkedln
D. Project quote management
E. Event management

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 88
A company uses social media for marketing.
The company wants to use out-of-the-box Dynamics 365 Marketing functionality to streamline social media marketing.
You need to determine the supported social media activities.
Which action is supported?

A. Gel notified when a company is mentioned.
B. Schedule a post to be published in the future.
C. Analyze the sentiment of posts about a company.
D. Automatically follow another account when a specified condition is met

Answer: B

QUESTION 89
A company implements Dynamics 365 Customer Service for their support desk.
Agents resolve issues based on their own personal experiences or they must try to recreate the problem. This is causing customer satisfaction issues as resolution time is longer than expected and not consistent.
You need to implement a solution to improve consistency of answers and ensure that agents can share their answers.
What should you implement?

A. Service level agreements
B. Customer Service Insights
C. Power Automate to transfer cases
D. Knowledge base management

Answer: C

QUESTION 90
A potential customer delays their decision to commit to a big multi-year contract.
You want to find other colleagues who have interacted with the potential customer to discuss strategies.
Which app should you recommend?

A. Customer Service Insights
B. Sales Insights
C. Power Virtual Agents
D. Market Insights

Answer: B

QUESTION 91
You are a consultant working with a company that sells sporting equipment.
The company uses Microsoft 365 and Dynamics 365 Sales.
You need to recommend tools that integrate with Dynamics 365 Sales and improve file collaboration.
What three tools should you recommend? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Power BI
B. SharePoint Online
C. OneDrive for Business
D. Microsoft Teams
E. Power Automate

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 92
A company has a large number of technicians that work in the field.
You need to ensure that Dynamics 365 Field Service can automatically schedule work to minimize travel time for technicians.
What should you implement?

A. Schedule board
B. Unified routing for table records
C. Universal Resource Scheduling
D. Resource scheduling optimization

Answer: D

QUESTION 93
A company is using Dynamics 365 Customer Service for case management.
The company must use entitlements to enforce limitations on customer ticket creation.
You need to design the entitlement terms.
Which two metrics should you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Number of hours
B. Number of cases
C. Initial response time
D. Hours of service

Answer: AB

QUESTION 94
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales with out-of-the-box forms. Users must view logged phone calls and meetings for contacts.
Which feature includes phone calls and meetings?

A. Timeline
B. Contact information
C. Controls
D. Attachments

Answer: A

QUESTION 95
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales.
The company plans to use Linkedln Sales Navigator to increase sales productivity and assist salespersons in their daily duties.
You need to identify potential decision makers for a sale.
Which Linkedln Sales Navigator feature should you use?

A. Related Leads
B. Top Card
C. Auto Capture

Answer: A

QUESTION 96
A company is working with a potential customer on a multi-year contract. The customer decides to delay their decision to commit to the contract.
You want to find other colleagues who have interacted with the potential customer so that you can discuss strategies with the colleagues to close the deal with the customer.
Which app should you recommend?

A. Power Virtual Agents
B. Sales Insights
C. Customer Service Insights
D. Market Insights

Answer: B

QUESTION 97
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. The company creates sales proposals as PDF documents.
The company wants multiple users to access the latest version of a sales proposal in Dynamics 365 Sales. Many users do not have access to Dynamics 365 Sales.
You need to recommend an app for the company.
Which app should you recommend?

A. Dynamics 365 Sales Insights
B. Microsoft Excel
C. Microsoft Outlook
D. Microsoft Teams

Answer: A

QUESTION 98
Sales representatives need a view of all of their customers and the statistics that relate to these customers.
You need to identify how to create visuals for sales representatives to analyze and compare the data for multiple accounts.
What are three possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Create custom forms.
B. Embed Power Bl reports in a system dashboard.
C. Create charts.
D. Create reports in the report wizard.
E. Import Excel data.

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 99
A company uses Dynamics 365 Marketing. The company uses a third-party app to send email surveys to prospects to better understand their business needs.
There is currently no link to prospect records and users report that the survey management process is manual and is difficult to manage.
You need to automate the survey process and streamline collection and analysis of responses.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Use Customer Voice to compile results from the existing third-party app.
B. Use Power Automate to automatically send Customer Voice surveys.
C. Create a survey in Dynamics 365 Marketing and create a campaign to send it to out and collect data.
D. Use Customer Voice to collect and analyze survey results.
E. Create surveys in Dynamics 365 Marketing by using Questionnaire.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 100
Drag and Drop Question
Dynamics 365 Customer Service has the following requirements:
– Issues created on a website must be added to Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
– A customer must be limited to opening no more than 10 issues a month.
– Escalations must be organized into an area that ensures managers can view escalated issues.
You need to identify the areas in the system that meet the requirements.
Which area should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate areas to the correct requirements. Each area may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

QUESTION 101
Hotspot Question
A company uses Dynamics 365 Marketing. The company wants an automated solution to test two email designs before launching the entire email campaign.
You need to recommend a solution for the company.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

QUESTION 102
Hotspot Question
An air-conditioning repair company uses Dynamics 365 Field Service, Customers and users report several issues.
What should you use to resolve each issue? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

QUESTION 103
Hotspot Question
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales.
The sales process must use products.
You need to create the product catalog record type.
Which record types should you create? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

QUESTION 104
Drag and Drop Question
You use Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
You plan to configure service-level agreements (SLAs) for cases.
Which feature should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate features to the correct scenarios. Each feature may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

QUESTION 105
Drag and Drop Question
A company plans to implement Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
Dynamics 365 Customer Service uses terminology that is different than what the existing customer service solution uses.
You need to create a glossary for employees.
Match each item to its definition. To answer, drag the appropriate definition from the column on the left to its item on the right. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.

Answer:


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QUESTION 387
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that uses Microsoft Teams and SharePoint Online.
You create a team and a SharePoint Online site for a new project named Project1.
You need to manage access to the team and the site. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Members of Project1 must be able to control who has access to the team and the site.
– Only users in the subscription must be ab*e to request access to the team and the site.
– Access to the team and the site must be removed after 12 months.
– Access to the team and the site must be reviewed every month.
What should you create first?

A. a catalog
B. an access review
C. a Conditional Access policy
D. an access package

Answer: B

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QUESTION 188
What should you use to automatically delete blobs from Azure Blob Storage?

A. soft delete
B. archive storage
C. the change feed
D. a lifecycle management policy

Answer: D

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QUESTION 183
An engineer must verify that the DNS SRV entries that are configured have the correct information.
How is this configuration completed via a Windows machine?

A. Go to Windows Explorer and type nslookup. Set the type=internet, and then enter the SRV record.
B. Go to the command prompt and type dnslookup. Set the type=sip. and then enter the SRV record.
C. Go to Internet Explorer and type nslookup. Set the type=srv, and then enter the SRV record.
D. Go to the command prompt and type nslookup. Set the type=srv, and then enter the SRV record.

Answer: D

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Question: 27
You use Azure Synapse Analytics and Apache Spark notebooks to You need to use PySpark to gain access to the visual libraries. Which Python libraries should you use?

A. Seaborn only
B. Matplotlib and Seaborn
C. Matplotlib only
D. Matplotlib and TensorFlow
E. TensorFlow only
F. Seaborn and TensorFlow

Answer: E

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QUESTION 701
You need to deploy a new web-based software package for your organization. The package requires three separate servers and needs to be available on the Internet. What is the recommended architecture in terms of server placement?

A. All three servers need to be placed internally
B. A web server and the database server facing the Internet, an application server on the internal network
C. A web server facing the Internet, an application server on the internal network, a database server on the internal network
D. All three servers need to face the Internet so that they can communicate between themselves

Answer: D

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[June-2022]Real Exam Questions-Braindump2go SY0-601 Dumps PDF and VCE SY0-601 754Q Download[Q686-Q736]

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QUESTION 686
An engineer recently deployed a group of 100 web servers in a cloud environment.
Per the security policy, all web-server ports except 443 should be disabled.
Which of the following can be used to accomplish this task?

A. Application allow list
B. SWG
C. Host-based firewall
D. VPN

Answer: B

QUESTION 687
A company is implementing BYOD and wants to ensure all users have access to the same cloud-based services.
Which of the following would BEST allow the company to meet this requirement?

A. laaS
B. PasS
C. MaaS
D. SaaS

Answer: B

QUESTION 688
Which of the following control Types would be BEST to use in an accounting department to reduce losses from fraudulent transactions?

A. Recovery
B. Deterrent
C. Corrective
D. Detective

Answer: D

QUESTION 689
The database administration team is requesting guidance for a secure solution that will ensure confidentiality of cardholder data at rest only in certain fields in the database schema.
The requirement is to substitute a sensitive data field with a non-sensitive field that is rendered useless if a data breach occurs.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to meet the requirement?

A. Tokenization
B. Masking
C. Full disk encryption
D. Mirroring

Answer: B

QUESTION 690
A SOC operator is analyzing a log file that contains the following entries:

A. SQL injection and improper input-handling attempts
B. Cross-site scripting and resource exhaustion attempts
C. Command injection and directory traversal attempts
D. Error handling and privilege escalation attempts

Answer: C

QUESTION 691
Which of the following actions would be recommended to improve an incident response process?

A. Train the team to identify the difference between events and incidents
B. Modify access so the IT team has full access to the compromised assets
C. Contact the authorities if a cybercrime is suspected
D. Restrict communication surrounding the response to the IT team

Answer: A

QUESTION 692
An organization would like to give remote workers the ability to use applications hosted inside the corporate network. Users will be allowed to use their personal computers or they will be provided organization assets. Either way no data or applications will be installed locally on any user systems. Which of the following mobile solutions would accomplish these goals?

A. VDI
B. MDM
C. COPE
D. UTM

Answer: A

QUESTION 693
The Chief Information Security Officer directed a nsk reduction in shadow IT and created a policy requiring all unsanctioned high-nsk SaaS applications to be blocked from user access.
Which of the following is the BEST security solution to reduce this risk?

A. CASB
B. VPN concentrator
C. MFA
D. VPC endpoint

Answer: A

QUESTION 694
Which of the following would BEST provide detective and corrective controls for thermal regulation?

A. A smoke detector
B. A fire alarm
C. An HVAC system
D. A fire suppression system
E. Guards

Answer: C

QUESTION 695
Which of the following statements BEST describes zero-day exploits?

A. When a zero-day exploit is discovered, the system cannot be protected by any means
B. Zero-day exploits have their own scoring category in CVSS
C. A zero-day exploit is initially undetectable and no patch for it exists
D. Discovering zero-day exploits is always performed via bug bounty programs

Answer: C

QUESTION 696
An organization discovered files with proprietary financial data have been deleted.
The files have been recovered from backup but every time the Chief Financial Officer logs in to the file server, the same files are deleted again No other users are experiencing this issue.
Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this behavior?

A. Logic bomb
B. Crypto malware
C. Spyware
D. Remote access Trojan

Answer: A

QUESTION 697
An IT manager is estimating the mobile device budget for the upcoming year.
Over the last five years, the number of devices that were replaced due to loss damage or theft steadily increased by 10%.
Which of the following would BEST describe the estimated number of devices to be replaced next year?

A. ALE
B. ARO
C. RPO
D. SLE

Answer: A

QUESTION 698
Which of the following is assured when a user signs an email using a private key?

A. Non-repudiation
B. Confidentiality
C. Availably
D. Authentication

Answer: A

QUESTION 699
An organization implemented a process that compares the settings currently configured on systems against secure configuration guidelines in order to identify any gaps.
Which of the following control types has the organization implemented?

A. Compensating
B. Corrective
C. Preventive
D. Detective

Answer: C

QUESTION 700
A company wants to improve end users experiences when they tog in to a trusted partner website.
The company does not want the users to be issued separate credentials for the partner website.
Which of the following should be implemented to allow users to authenticate using their own credentials to log in to the trusted partner’s website?

A. Directory service
B. AAA server
C. Federation
D. Multifactor authentication

Answer: C

QUESTION 701
Which of the following would be the BEST way to analyze diskless malware that has infected a VDI?

A. Shut down the VDI and copy off the event logs.
B. Take a memory snapshot of the running system.
C. Use NetFlow to identify command-and-control IPs.
D. Run a full on-demand scan of the root volume.

Answer: B

QUESTION 703
A report delivered to the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) shows that some user credentials could be exfilltrated. The report also indicates that users tend to choose the same credentials on different systems and applications. Which of the following policies should the CISO use to prevent someone from using the exfilltrated credentials?

A. MFA
B. Lockout
C. Time-based logins
D. Password history

Answer: B

QUESTION 704
A user is attempting to navigate to a website from inside the company network using a desktop. When the user types in the URL. https://www.site.com, the user is presented with a certificate mismatch warning from the browser. The user does not receive a warning when visiting http://www.anothersite.com. Which of the following describes this attack?

A. On-path
B. Domain hijacking
C. DNS poisoning
D. Evil twin

Answer: C

QUESTION 705
A new company wants to avoid channel interference when building a WLAN. The company needs to know the radio frequency behavior, identify dead zones, and determine the best place for access points. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A. Configure heat maps.
B. Utilize captive portals.
C. Conduct a site survey.
D. Install Wi-Fi analyzers.

Answer: A

QUESTION 706
Which of the following tools is effective in preventing a user from accessing unauthorized removable media?

A. USB data blocker
B. Faraday cage
C. Proximity reader
D. Cable lock

Answer: A

QUESTION 707
An engineer wants to inspect traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment.
Which of the following solutions should the engineer implement?

A. Proxy server
B. WAF
C. Load balancer
D. VPN

Answer: B

QUESTION 708
A user enters a username and a password at the login screen for a web portal. A few seconds later the following message appears on the screen: Please use a combination of numbers, special characters, and letters in the password field.
Which of the following concepts does this message describe?

A. Password complexity
B. Password reuse
C. Password history
D. Password age

Answer: A

QUESTION 709
An incident has occurred in the production environment.
Analyze the command outputs and identify the type of compromise. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.


Answer: SQL injection

QUESTION 710
Data exftitration analysis indicates that an attacker managed to download system configuration notes from a web server. The web-server logs have been deleted, but analysts have determined that the system configuration notes were stored in the database administrator’s folder on the web server. Which of the following attacks explains what occurred? (Select TWO)

A. Pass-the-hash
B. Directory traversal
C. SQL injection
D. Privilege escalation
E. Cross-site scnpting
F. Request forgery

Answer: A

QUESTION 711
Which of the following is the MOST effective control against zero-day vulnerabilities?

A. Network segmentation
B. Patch management
C. Intrusion prevention system
D. Multiple vulnerability scanners

Answer: A

QUESTION 712
Which of the following organizations sets frameworks and controls for optimal security configuration on systems?

A. ISO
B. GDPR
C. PCI DSS
D. NIST

Answer: A

QUESTION 713
Which of the following describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restncted areas?

A. Persistence
B. Buffer overflow
C. Privilege escalation
D. Pharming

Answer: C

QUESTION 714
Which of the following is a known security risk associated with data archives that contain financial information?

A. Data can become a liability if archived longer than required by regulatory guidance
B. Data must be archived off-site to avoid breaches and meet business requirements
C. Companies are prohibited from providing archived data to e-discovery requests
D. Unencrypted archives should be preserved as long as possible and encrypted

Answer: B

QUESTION 715
A large bank with two geographically dispersed data centers is concerned about major power disruptions at both locations. Every day each location expenences very bnef outages that last for a few seconds. However dunng the summer a high risk of intentional brownouts that last up to an hour exists particularly at one of the locations near an jndustnal smelter.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to reduce the risk of data loss?

A. Dual supply
B. Generator
C. UPS
D. PDU
E. Daily backups

Answer: E

QUESTION 716
Several universities are participating m a collaborative research project and need to share compute and storage resources.
Which of the following cloud deployment strategies would BEST meet this need?

A. Community
B. Private
C. Public
D. Hybrid

Answer: A

QUESTION 717
An organization has activated an incident response plan due to a malware outbreak on its network. The organization has brought in a forensics team that has identified an internet-facing Windows server as the likely point of initial compromise. The malware family that was detected is known to be distributed by manually logging on to servers and running the malicious code.
Which of the following actions would be BEST to prevent reinfection from the initial infection vector?

A. Prevent connections over TFTP from the internal network
B. Create a firewall rule that blocks port 22 from the internet to the server
C. Disable file shanng over port 445 to the server
D. Block port 3389 inbound from untrusted networks

Answer: B

QUESTION 718
A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned that cloud-based services are not adequately protected from advanced threats and malware. The CSO believes there is a high risk that a data breach could occur in the near future due to the lack of detective and preventive controls.
Which of the following should be implemented to BEST address the CSO’s concerns? (Select TWO)

A. AWAF
B. ACASB
C. An NG-SWG
D. Segmentation
E. Encryption
F. Containerization

Answer: C

QUESTION 719
Field workers in an organization are issued mobile phones on a daily basis. All the work is performed within one city and the mobile phones are not used for any purpose other than work. The organization does not want these pnones used for personal purposes. The organization would like to issue the phones to workers as permanent devices so the pnones do not need to be reissued every day. Which of the following technologies would BEST meet these requirements?

A. Geofencing
B. Mobile device management
C. Containenzation
D. Remote wiping

Answer: C

QUESTION 720
During a recent incident an external attacker was able to exploit an SMB vulnerability over the internet.
Which of the following action items should a security analyst perform FIRST to prevent this from occurring again?

A. Check for any recent SMB CVEs
B. Install AV on the affected server
C. Block unneeded TCP 445 connections
D. Deploy a NIDS in the affected subnet

Answer: A

QUESTION 721
Business partners are working on a secunty mechanism lo validate transactions securely.
The requirement is for one company to be responsible for deploying a trusted solution that will register and issue artifacts used to sign encrypt, and decrypt transaction files.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to adopt?

A. PKI
B. Blockchain
C. SAML
D. OAuth

Answer: B

QUESTION 722
An organization wants to participate in threat intelligence information sharing with peer groups.
Which of the following would MOST likely meet the organizations requirement?

A. Perform OSINT investigations
B. Subscribe to threat intelligence feeds
C. Submit RFCs
D. Implement a TAXII server

Answer: B

QUESTION 723
An organization has developed an application that needs a patch to fix a critical vulnerability.
In which of the following environments should the patch be deployed LAST?

A. Test
B. Staging
C. Development
D. Production

Answer: A

QUESTION 724
Which of the following risk management strategies would an organization use to maintain a legacy system with known risks for operational purposes?

A. Acceptance
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Mitigation

Answer: D

QUESTION 725
A social media company based in North Amenca is looking to expand into new global markets and needs to maintain compliance with international standards.
Which of the following is the company’s data protection officer MOST likely concerned?

A. NIST Framework
B. ISO 27001
C. GDPR
D. PCI-DSS

Answer: C

QUESTION 726
Several users have opened tickets with the help desk. The help desk has reassigned the tickets to a secunty analyst for further review.
The security analyst reviews the following metrics:

Which of the following is MOST likely the result of the security analyst’s review?

A. The ISP is dropping outbound connections
B. The user of the Sales-PC fell for a phishing attack
C. Corporate PCs have been turned into a botnet
D. An on-path attack is taking place between PCs and the router

Answer: D

QUESTION 727
A security analyst wants to fingerpnnt a web server.
Which of the following tools will the security analyst MOST likely use to accomplish this task?

A. nmap -p1-65S35 192.168.0.10
B. dig 192.168.0.10
C. cur1 –htad http://192.168.0.10
D. ping 192.168.0.10

Answer: C

QUESTION 728
A security analyst is working on a project to implement a solution that monitors network communications and provides alerts when abnormal behavior is detected.
Which of the following is the security analyst MOST likely implementing?

A. Vulnerability scans
B. User behavior analysis
C. Security orchestration, automation, and response
D. Threat hunting

Answer: D

QUESTION 729
Which of the following provides a calculated value for known vulnerabilities so organizations can prioritize mitigation steps?

A. CVSS
B. SIEM
C. SOAR
D. CVE

Answer: A

QUESTION 730
A Chief Information Security Officer has defined resiliency requirements for a new data center architecture.
The requirements are as follows:
– Critical fileshares will remain accessible during and after a natural disaster
– Frve percent of hard disks can fail at any given time without impacting the data.
– Systems will be forced to shut down gracefully when battery levels are below 20%
Which of the following are required to BEST meet these objectives? (Select THREE)

A. Fiber switching
B. laC
C. NAS
D. RAID
E. UPS
F. Redundant power supplies
G. Geographic dispersal
H. Snapshots
I. Load balancing

Answer: ACG

QUESTION 731
A security analyst has been asked by the Chief Information Security Officer to:
– develop a secure method of providing centralized management of infrastructure
– reduce the need to constantly replace aging end user machines
– provide a consistent user desktop expenence
Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?

A. BYOD
B. Mobile device management
C. VDI
D. Containers ation

Answer: C

QUESTION 732
A forensic analyst needs to prove that data has not been tampered with since it was collected.
Which of the following methods will the analyst MOST likely use?

A. Look for tampenng on the evidence collection bag
B. Encrypt the collected data using asymmetric encryption
C. Ensure proper procedures for chain of custody are being followed
D. Calculate the checksum using a hashing algorithm

Answer: A

QUESTION 733
A systems administrator reports degraded performance on a virtual server. The administrator increases the virtual memory allocation which improves conditions, but performance degrades again after a few days. The administrator runs an anarysis tool and sees the following output:

The administrator terminates the timeAttend.exe observes system performance over the next few days, and notices that the system performance does not degrade.
Which of the following issues is MOST likely occurring?

A. DLL injection
B. API attack
C. Buffer oveiflow
D. Memory leak

Answer: B

QUESTION 734
A security analyst has identified malv/are spreading through the corporate network and has activated the CSIRT.
Which of the following should the analyst do NEXT?

A. Review how the malware was introduced to the network
B. Attempt to quarantine all infected hosts to limit further spread
C. Create help desk tickets to get infected systems reimaged
D. Update all endpomt antivirus solutions with the latest updates

Answer: C

QUESTION 735
An ofgantzation has decided to purchase an insurance policy because a risk assessment determined that the cost to remediate the risk is greater than the five-year cost of the insurance policy. The organization is enabling risk:

A. avoidance
B. acceptance
C. mitigation
D. transference

Answer: A

QUESTION 736
Which of the following is the GREATEST security concern when outsourcing code development to third-party contractors for an internet-facing application?

A. Intellectual property theft
B. Elevated privileges
C. Unknown backdoor
D. Quality assurance

Answer: C


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QUESTION 466
Which umask value ensures that new directories can be read, written and listed by their owning user, read and listed by their owning group and are not accessible at all for everyone else?

A. 0750
B. 0027
C. 0036
D. 7640
E. 0029

Answer: B

QUESTION 467
Which is the default percentage of reserved space for the root user on new ext4 filesystems?

A. 10%
B. 3%
C. 15%
D. 0%
E. 5%

Answer: E

QUESTION 468
Which of the following is true when a file system, which is neither listed in /etc/fstab nor known to system, is mounted manually?

A. systemd ignores any manual mounts which are not done using the systemctl mount command
B. The command systemctl mountsync can be used to create a mount unit based on the existing mount
C. systemd automatically generates a mount unit and monitors the mount point without changing it
D. Unless a systemd mount unit is created, systemd unmounts the file system after a short period of time
E. systemctl unmount must be used to remove the mount because system opens a file descriptor on the mount point

Answer: B

QUESTION 469
What does the command mount –bind do?

A. It makes the contents of one directory available in another directory
B. It mounts all available filesystems to the current directory
C. It mounts all user mountable filesystems to the user’s home directory
D. It mounts all file systems listed in /etc/fstab which have the option userbind set
E. It permanently mounts a regular file to a directory

Answer: A

QUESTION 470
Consider the following output from the command is -i:

How would a new file named c.txt be created with the same inode number as a.txt (Inode 525385)?

A. ln ­h a.txt c.txt
B. ln c.txt a.txt
C. ln a.txt c.txt
D. ln ­f c.txt a.txt
E. ln ­i 525385 c.txt

Answer: C

QUESTION 471
Consider the following directory:
drwxrwxr-x 2 root sales 4096 Jan 1 15:21 sales
Which command ensures new files created within the directory sales are owned by the group sales? (Choose two.)

A. chmod g+s sales
B. setpol ­R newgroup=sales sales
C. chgrp ­p sales sales
D. chown –persistent *.sales sales
E. chmod 2775 sales

Answer: CE

QUESTION 472
When considering the use of hard links, what are valid reasons not to use hard links?

A. Hard links are not available on all Linux systems because traditional filesystems, such as ext4, do not support them
B. Each hard link has individual ownership, permissions and ACLs which can lead to unintended disclosure of file content
C. Hard links are specific to one filesystem and cannot point to files on another filesystem
D. If users other than root should be able to create hard links, suln has to be installed and configured
E. When a hard linked file is changed, a copy of the file is created and consumes additional space

Answer: A

QUESTION 473
Which daemon handles power management events on a Linux system?

A. acpid
B. batteryd
C. pwrmgntd
D. psd
E. inetd

Answer: A

QUESTION 474
Which of the following statements are true about the boot sequence of a PC using a BIOS? (Choose two.)

A. Some parts of the boot process can be configured from the BIOS
B. Linux does not require the assistance of the BIOS to boot a computer
C. The BIOS boot process starts only if secondary storage, such as the hard disk, is functional
D. The BIOS initiates the boot process after turning the computer on
E. The BIOS is started by loading hardware drivers from secondary storage, such as the hard disk

Answer: AD

QUESTION 475
What is true regarding UEFI firmware? (Choose two.)

A. It can read and interpret partition tables
B. It can use and read certain file systems
C. It stores its entire configuration on the /boot/ partition
D. It is stored in a special area within the GPT metadata
E. It is loaded from a fixed boot disk position

Answer: BD

QUESTION 476
A faulty kernel module is causing issues with a network interface card. Which of the following actions ensures that this module is not loaded automatically when the system boots?

A. Using lsmod –remove –autoclean without specifying the name of a specific module
B. Using modinfo -k followed by the name of the offending module
C. Using modprobe -r followed by the name of the offending module
D. Adding a blacklist line including the name of the offending module to the file /etc/modprobe.d/blacklist.conf
E. Deleting the kernel module’s directory from the file system and recompiling the kernel, including its modules

Answer: D

QUESTION 477
When is the content of the kernel ring buffer reset? (Choose two.)

A. When the ring buffer is explicitly reset using the command dmesg –clear
B. When the ring buffer is read using dmesg without any additional parameters
C. When a configurable amount of time, 15 minutes by default, has passed
D. When the kernel loads a previously unloaded kernel module
E. When the system is shut down or rebooted

Answer: AE

QUESTION 478
What is the first program the Linux kernel starts at boot time when using System V init?

A. /lib/init.so
B. /proc/sys/kernel/init
C. /etc/rc.d/rcinit
D. /sbin/init
E. /boot/init

Answer: D

QUESTION 479
A Debian package creates several files during its installation. Which of the following commands searches for packages owning the file /etc/debian_version?

A. apt-get search /etc/debian_version
B. apt ­r /etc/debian_version
C. find /etc/debian_version -dpkg
D. dpkg ­S /etc/debian_version
E. apt-file /etc/debian_version

Answer: C

QUESTION 480
What is contained on the EFI System Partition?

A. The Linux root file system
B. The first stage boot loader
C. The default swap space file
D. The Linux default shell binaries
E. The user home directories

Answer: B

QUESTION 481
Which of the following directories on a 64 bit Linux system typically contain shared libraries? (Choose two.)

A. ~/.lib64/
B. /usr/lib64/
C. /var/lib64/
D. /lib64/
E. /opt/lib64/

Answer: AD

QUESTION 482
Which of the following files exist in a standard GRUB 2 installation? (Choose two.)

A. /boot/grub/stages/stage0
B. /boot/grub/i386-pc/1vm.mod
C. /boot/grub/fstab
D. /boot/grub/grub.cfg
E. /boot/grub/linux/vmlinuz

Answer: BD

QUESTION 483
Which of the following commands installs all packages with a name ending with the string foo?

A. zypper get “*foo”
B. zypper update “foo?”
C. zypper force “foo*”
D. zypper install “*foo”
E. zypper add “.*foo”

Answer: D

QUESTION 484
Which of the following properties of a Linux system should be changed when a virtual machine is cloned? (Choose two.)

A. The partitioning scheme
B. The file system
C. The D-Bus Machine ID
D. The permissions of /root/
E. The SSH host keys

Answer: DE

QUESTION 485
Which of the following commands installs GRUB 2 into the master boot record on the third hard disk?

A. grub2 install /dev/sdc
B. grub-mkrescue /dev/sdc
C. grub-mbrinstall /dev/sdc
D. grub-setup /dev/sdc
E. grub-install /dev/sdc

Answer: E

QUESTION 486
Which of the following commands prints a list of usernames (first column) and their primary group (fourth column) from the /etc/passwd file?

A. fmt ­f 1,4 /etc/passwd
B. cut ­d : -f 1,4 /etc/passwd
C. sort ­t : -k 1,4 /etc/passwd
D. paste ­f 1,4 /etc/passwd
E. split ­c 1,4 /etc/passwd

Answer: B

QUESTION 487
Which of the following regular expressions represents a single upper-case letter?

A. :UPPER:
B. [A-Z]
C. !a-z
D. %C
E. {AZ}

Answer: B

QUESTION 488
Given a log file loga.log with timestamps of the format DD/MM/YYYY:hh:mm:ss, which command filters out all log entries in the time period between 8:00 am and 8:59 am?

A. grep ­E `:08:[09]+:[09]+’ loga.log
B. grep ­E `:08:[00]+’ loga.log
C. grep ­E loga.log `:08:[0-9]+:[0-9]+’
D. grep loga.log `:08:[0-9]:[0-9]’
E. grep ­E `:08:[0-9]+:[0-9]+’ loga.log

Answer: E

QUESTION 489
What is true regarding the configuration of yum? (Choose two.)

A. Changes to the repository configuration become active after running yum confupdate
B. Changes to the yum configuration become active after restarting the yumd service
C. The configuration of package repositories can be divided into multiple files
D. Repository configurations can include variables such as $basearch or $releasever
E. In case /etc/yum.repos.d/ contains files, /etc/yum.conf is ignored

Answer: DE

QUESTION 490
Which of the following apt-get subcommands installs the newest versions of all currently installed packages?

A. auto-update
B. dist-upgrade
C. full-upgrade
D. install
E. update

Answer: E

QUESTION 491
Which command uninstalls a package but keeps its configuration files in case the package is re- installed?

A. dpkg ­s pkgname
B. dpkg ­L pkgname
C. dpkg ­P pkgname
D. dpkg ­v pkgname
E. dpkg ­r pkgname

Answer: E

QUESTION 492
Which of the following commands lists the dependencies of the RPM package file foo.rpm?

A. rpm ­qpR foo.rpm
B. rpm ­dep foo
C. rpm ­ld foo.rpm
D. rpm ­R foo.rpm
E. rpm ­pD foo

Answer: A

QUESTION 493
Which of the following commands list all files and directories within the /tmp/ directory and its subdirectories which are owned by the user root? (Choose two.)

A. find /tmp ­user root -print
B. find ­path /tmp ­uid root
C. find /tmp ­uid root -print
D. find /tmp ­user root
E. find ­path /tmp ­user root -print

Answer: AE

QUESTION 494
Which of the following are valid stream redirection operators within Bash? (Choose two.)

A. <
B. #>
C. %>
D. >>>
E. 2>&1

Answer: AE

QUESTION 495
Which of the following vi commands deletes two lines, the current and the following line?

A. d2
B. 2d
C. 2dd
D. dd2
E. de12

Answer: C


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QUESTION 54
You were tasked to enhance the security of a network with these characteristics:
– A pool of servers is accessed by numerous data centers and remote sites
– The servers are accessed via a cluster of firewalls
– The firewalls are configured properly and are not dropping traffic
– The firewalls occasionally cause asymmetric routing of traffic within the server data center.
Which technology should you recommend to enhance security by limiting traffic that could originate from a hacker compromising a workstation and redirecting flows at the servers?

A. Poison certain subnets by adding static routes to Null0 on the core switches connected to the pool of servers.
B. Deploy uRPF strict mode.
C. Limit sources of traffic that exit the server-facing interface of the firewall cluster with ACLs.
D. Deploy uRPF loose mode

Answer: C

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